Nursing Elites

1. How often should a 5-year-old child undergo a dental examination?

• A. Every 6 months
• B. Whenever a new primary tooth erupts
• C. Once a year
• D. Every 3 months

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a 5-year-old child, dental examinations should be conducted every 6 months. This frequency allows for early detection of dental issues and promotes good oral health. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because waiting for a new primary tooth to erupt, having an examination once a year, or every 3 months are not the recommended intervals for dental check-ups in this age group. It is essential to adhere to the standard guideline of every 6 months to ensure regular monitoring and preventive care for the child's dental health.

2. A nurse is preparing to assess the function of a client's spinal accessory nerve. Which action does the nurse ask the client to take to aid assessment of this nerve?

• A. Smiling
• B. Clenching the teeth
• C. Shrugging the shoulders against the nurse's resistance
• D. Identifying by taste a substance placed on the back of the tongue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To assess cranial nerve XI (spinal accessory nerve), the examiner checks the sternomastoid and trapezius muscles for equal size. Equal strength is assessed by asking the client to rotate the head forcibly against resistance applied to the side of the chin and by asking the client to shrug the shoulders against resistance. These movements should feel equally strong on the two sides. The client is asked to smile as a test of the function of cranial nerve VII (facial nerve). The client's ability to clench the teeth is used to assess the motor function of cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve). The client's taste perception is used to assess the sensory function of cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve). Therefore, the correct action to assess the spinal accessory nerve is to ask the client to shrug the shoulders against resistance. The other options are used to assess different cranial nerves, making them incorrect choices.

3. The nurse is caring for a client who has dysphagia related to a stroke. The nurse works with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration. What is this an example of?

• A. Health promotion
• B. Secondary prevention
• C. Tertiary prevention
• D. Primary prevention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse working with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves early detection and intervention to prevent complications or worsening of a condition. In this case, the nurse is helping to prevent aspiration pneumonia by providing education and guidance on safe eating and drinking practices after the client has already experienced dysphagia due to a stroke. Choice A, health promotion, focuses on empowering individuals to adopt healthy behaviors to improve overall well-being and prevent illness. It is more about promoting general health rather than specific interventions related to a particular condition like dysphagia. Choice C, tertiary prevention, involves managing and rehabilitating a condition to prevent further complications or disabilities. In this scenario, the nurse is not yet addressing complications but rather actively preventing them. Choice D, primary prevention, aims to prevent the onset of a disease or condition before it occurs. The client in this case already has dysphagia, so the focus is on preventing further complications, making it a secondary prevention intervention.

4. When an elder client asks the nurse whether he will be capable of sexual activity in old age, the best response by the nurse is:

• A. "Elder adults are psychologically and physically capable of engaging in sexual activity regardless of age-related changes."?
• B. "If you haven't been sexually active throughout your life, you will not be able to participate in sexual activity in old age."?
• C. "When intercourse isn't possible, many of your sexual needs can be met through intimacy and touch."?
• D. "You might find it takes longer for you to achieve an erection, but you can maintain it for a longer time."?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response for the nurse when an elder client asks about capability for sexual activity in old age is to provide reassurance and open communication. Choice A is the correct answer as it acknowledges that elder adults can engage in sexual activity both physically and psychologically despite age-related changes. This response encourages further discussion and addresses the client's concerns. Choices B, C, and D contain some truths but are not the most therapeutic responses. Choice B implies that past sexual activity is a prerequisite for sexual activity in old age, which is not entirely accurate as intimacy can be experienced in various ways. Choice C, while true about alternative ways to meet sexual needs, does not directly address the client's question about sexual activity. Choice D focuses on the physiological aspect of sexual function, which is important but not the most appropriate initial response to the client's query.

5. The LPN is caring for a 9-month-old infant. Which of these behaviors exhibited by the child warrants further investigation?

• A. She prefers crawling over walking and makes no attempt to walk.
• B. She seems distressed by new adults.
• C. She does not respond to her own name.
• D. She only babbles "mama"? and "dada."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that the child does not respond to her own name. By 9 months, children should be babbling simple words, crawling, and responding to their name. Not responding to one's name can be an early indicator of a potential developmental delay, warranting further investigation. Preferring crawling over walking, being distressed by new adults, and babbling 'mama' and 'dada' are typical behaviors for a 9-month-old and do not necessarily require immediate concern.

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