NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. A 65-year-old female client is experiencing postmenopausal bleeding. Which type of physician should this client be encouraged to see?
- A. a radiologist
- B. a gynecologist
- C. a physiatrist
- D. an oncologist
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A 65-year-old female experiencing postmenopausal bleeding should be encouraged to see a gynecologist. Gynecologists specialize in treating and managing diseases of the female reproductive organs, making them the most appropriate physician for this issue. Postmenopausal bleeding can indicate various gynecological conditions such as endometrial atrophy, endometrial hyperplasia, or endometrial cancer, highlighting the importance of consulting a gynecologist for proper diagnosis and management. Radiologists evaluate X-rays, physiatrists manage rehabilitation teams, and oncologists treat clients with cancer. Therefore, in this case, the symptoms point towards a gynecological problem, emphasizing the necessity of seeking care from a gynecologist.
2. The LPN is preparing a client for discharge, and the discharge medications include phenobarbital. Which of these client statements would indicate a need for reinforced teaching about this medication?
- A. "I will need to avoid eating excessive leafy greens."?
- B. "It's best to take this medication with food."?
- C. "I can't wait to get back to my nightly glass of wine."?
- D. "I should try to take this medication at the same time every day."?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is, "I can't wait to get back to my nightly glass of wine,"? as phenobarbital should not be taken with alcohol as it is a barbiturate. Alcohol may increase the sedative effect, posing risks to the patient's safety. Choice A, "I will need to avoid eating excessive leafy greens,"? is unrelated to phenobarbital and not a cause for reinforced teaching. Choice B, "It's best to take this medication with food,"? is a general instruction and not specific to phenobarbital. Choice D, "I should try to take this medication at the same time every day,"? is a common recommendation for medication adherence but does not highlight a specific concern related to phenobarbital.
3. A nurse is preparing to assess the fetal heart rate (FHR) of a client who is 14 weeks pregnant. Which piece of equipment does the nurse use to assess the FHR?
- A. Stethoscope
- B. Doppler transducer
- C. Fetoscope
- D. Pulse oximetry on the client and a fetoscope
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To assess the fetal heart rate of a client who is 14 weeks pregnant, the nurse should use a Doppler transducer. Fetal heart sounds can be heard with a fetoscope by 20 weeks of gestation. The Doppler transducer amplifies fetal heart sounds so that they are audible by 10 to 12 weeks of gestation, making it the most appropriate choice for this scenario. Fetal heart sounds cannot be heard with a stethoscope. Pulse oximetry is not used to auscultate fetal heart sounds, so it is an incorrect choice in this context.
4. When assisting with data collection on language development in a toddler from a bilingual family, what characteristic would a nurse expect?
- A. Is more advanced than expected
- B. Is developing as expected
- C. Is slower than expected
- D. Will require assistance from a speech therapist
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When assessing language development in a toddler from a bilingual family, a nurse would expect the child's language development to be slower than expected. Various factors, such as physical maturity and reinforcement received, can influence the pace of language development. Children from bilingual families, twins, and non-firstborn children may exhibit slower language development. Therefore, it is common for the language development of a toddler from a bilingual family to be slower than expected. This characteristic does not necessarily imply a need for speech therapy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because, in this context, the language development of the child is more likely to be slower than expected rather than more advanced, developing as expected, or requiring speech therapy.
5. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:
- A. naloxone (Narcan)
- B. labetalol (Normodyne)
- C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
- D. thiothixene (Navane)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing respiratory depression due to opiate overdose. Naloxone (Narcan) is an opioid antagonist that can rapidly reverse the effects of opiates by competitively binding to opioid receptors and displacing the opiates. This action can restore normal respiration and consciousness. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a non-selective beta-blocker used to manage hypertension, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid overdose. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to manage psychotic disorders, not opioid toxicity.
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