the physician orders the antibiotics ampicillin omnipen and gentamicin garamycin for a newly admitted client with an infection the nurse should
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Psychosocial Integrity Nclex PN Questions

1. The physician orders the antibiotics ampicillin (Omnipen) and gentamicin (Garamycin) for a newly admitted client with an infection. The nurse should:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client with an infection needs both antibiotics as soon as possible. However, the pH of ampicillin is 8-10, and the pH of gentamicin is 3-5.5, making them incompatible when given together. Flushing well between drugs is necessary to prevent interaction. Choice C is incorrect because the nurse, not the physician or pharmacy, should determine the correct administration sequence. Consulting with the pharmacist is appropriate if uncertain. Choice D is incorrect because delaying the second medication by several hours can slow the treatment of the client's infection, as both antibiotics are needed promptly to address the infection effectively. Therefore, the correct action is to give the medications sequentially and flush well between them to prevent any potential interactions.

2. During the history assessment of an 80-year-old client, which statement made by the client might indicate a possible fluid and electrolyte imbalance?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is "I often use a laxative for constipation." Frequent use of laxatives can lead to diarrhea and electrolyte loss, indicating a possible fluid and electrolyte imbalance. Statements A, C, and D are not directly related to fluid and electrolyte imbalance. Statement A about dry skin may suggest dehydration, but it is less specific to electrolyte imbalance than the frequent use of laxatives. Statement C about drinking a lot of iced tea could potentially relate to fluid intake, but it doesn't directly indicate an imbalance. Statement D about dribbling urine is more indicative of a potential urinary issue rather than a fluid and electrolyte imbalance.

3. A client is 2 days post-operative colon resection. After a coughing episode, the client's wound eviscerates. Which nursing action is most appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario where a client's wound eviscerates, the most appropriate nursing action is to cover the wound with a sterile saline-soaked dressing. Reinserting the protruding organ, as mentioned in choice A, is incorrect because it can lead to further complications requiring the client to return to surgery. Choice B, covering the wound with a sterile 4x4 and ABD dressing, is not ideal as it may not provide adequate protection and moisture for the exposed tissue. Choice D, applying an abdominal binder and manual pressure to the wound, is inappropriate as it does not address the specific needs of wound evisceration. Covering the wound with a sterile saline-soaked dressing helps maintain a moist environment, protects the exposed tissue, and prevents infection, promoting optimal wound healing and reducing the risk of complications.

4. All of the following are common reasons that nurses are reluctant to delegate except:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: If a delegator has confidence in their subordinates and believes a task will be performed correctly, they are more likely to delegate. Reasons nurses may be reluctant to delegate include their own lack of self-confidence, the desire to maintain authority, and getting trapped in the 'I can do it better myself' mindset. Therefore, 'confidence in subordinate' is the exception as it actually encourages delegation. The other choices are common barriers to delegation in healthcare settings.

5. When supporting a family who has just experienced a sudden and unexpected death, the nurse needs to know:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that survivors have greater emotional turmoil and shock than when death is expected. Sudden death produces more emotional turmoil and shock in survivors compared to gradual, expected death. Survivors of sudden death do not have the opportunity to engage in anticipatory grief. The unexpectedness of sudden death is the most disturbing and unbalancing factor, leading to heightened emotional turmoil and shock. Choice B is incorrect as survivors of sudden death experience more emotional turmoil and shock. Choice C is incorrect because sudden death brings about a different level of emotional turmoil and shock. Choice D is incorrect as survivors of sudden and unexpected death still go through significant emotional distress.

Similar Questions

Why is the intravenous route potentially the most dangerous route of drug administration?
Upon arrival at the emergency room, the client presents with severe burns to the left arm, hands, face, and neck. What action should take priority?
An elderly client denies that abuse is occurring. Which of the following factors could be a barrier for the client to admit being a victim?
In performing a psychosocial assessment, the nurse begins by asking questions that encourage the client to describe problematic behaviors and situations. The next step is to elicit the client's
The client with schizophrenia has become disruptive and requires seclusion. Which staff member can institute seclusion?

Access More Features

NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses