Nursing Elites

1. The physician orders the antibiotics ampicillin (Omnipen) and gentamicin (Garamycin) for a newly admitted client with an infection. The nurse should:

• A. administer both medications simultaneously.
• B. give the medications sequentially, and flush well between them.
• C. ask the physician or pharmacy which medication to give first and how long to wait before giving the other drug.
• D. start one medication now and begin the other medication in 2-4 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client with an infection needs both antibiotics as soon as possible. However, the pH of ampicillin is 8-10, and the pH of gentamicin is 3-5.5, making them incompatible when given together. Flushing well between drugs is necessary to prevent interaction. Choice C is incorrect because the nurse, not the physician or pharmacy, should determine the correct administration sequence. Consulting with the pharmacist is appropriate if uncertain. Choice D is incorrect because delaying the second medication by several hours can slow the treatment of the client's infection, as both antibiotics are needed promptly to address the infection effectively. Therefore, the correct action is to give the medications sequentially and flush well between them to prevent any potential interactions.

2. Which of the following coping mechanisms protects an individual from anxiety?

• A. denial and fantasy
• B. rationalization and suppression
• C. regression and displacement
• D. reaction formation and projection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'denial and fantasy.' Denial involves blocking external events from awareness to avoid anxiety, while fantasy is escaping to a more comfortable, less threatening place. These mechanisms can protect individuals from anxiety by providing temporary relief or distraction. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Rationalization and suppression do not directly protect individuals from anxiety. Regression and displacement involve reverting to earlier developmental stages or redirecting emotions to a substitute target, which do not directly shield individuals from anxiety. Reaction formation and projection entail behaving in the opposite way to one's impulses or attributing one's feelings to others respectively, which do not directly protect individuals from anxiety.

3. Which of the following describes the stages of domestic violence in an intimate relationship?

• A. happiness, crisis, angry outburst, intervention
• B. honeymoon period, escalation of stress, outburst, reconciliation
• C. acting out and making up
• D. peace and calm, angry outburst, peace and calm, denial

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'honeymoon period, escalation of stress, outburst, reconciliation.' A pattern of behavior known as the cycle of abuse involves these stages. It starts with a honeymoon phase, followed by a buildup of stress, an outburst which may involve violence, and then reconciliation. This cycle is commonly observed in domestic violence situations. Choices A, C, and D do not accurately represent the stages of domestic violence in intimate relationships. Choice A mixes positive and negative elements, while choice C simplifies the complex dynamics of domestic violence. Choice D repeats 'peace and calm' inappropriately and includes 'denial,' which is not typically a stage in the cycle of abuse.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to assess the acoustic nerve during a neurological examination. To assess this nerve, the provider uses which technique?

• A. Uses a tuning fork
• B. Asks the client to puff out the cheeks
• C. Tests taste perception on the client's tongue
• D. Checks the client's ability to clench the teeth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Testing of cranial nerve VIII (acoustic nerve) involves assessing hearing acuity through techniques like the whispered voice test and tuning fork tests (Weber and Rinne). Using a tuning fork helps determine if sound lateralizes to one ear (Weber) and compares air conduction to bone conduction (Rinne). Asking the client to puff out the cheeks is for cranial nerve VII (facial nerve) function evaluation. Testing taste perception on the tongue assesses cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) function. Checking the ability to clench teeth assesses cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve) motor function.

5. Why is the intravenous route potentially the most dangerous route of drug administration?

• A. IV infiltration may occur.
• B. it allows for rapid administration of a drug.
• C. rapid administration of a drug can lead to toxicity
• D. it is the most commonly used route in hospitals.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: rapid administration of a drug can lead to toxicity. When a drug is administered intravenously, it has 100% bioavailability, entering the bloodstream immediately and increasing the risk of toxicity if not carefully monitored. While IV infiltration (choice A) can cause tissue damage, it is not typically life-threatening. Choice B is incorrect as the speed of administration is not the primary reason for the danger; it is the immediate and full dose reaching the bloodstream. Choice D is incorrect as the popularity of the route does not inherently make it more dangerous.

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