Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional reviewing the health care record of a client notes documentation of grade 4 muscle strength. The healthcare professional understands that this indicates:

• A. Full ROM with gravity
• B. Full ROM against gravity with full resistance
• C. Full ROM with gravity eliminated (passive motion)
• D. Full ROM against gravity with some resistance

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Muscle strength is graded on a scale of 0 to 5. A grade of 5 indicates normal strength and is described as full ROM against gravity with full resistance. Grade 4 indicates good strength and full ROM against gravity with some resistance. Grade 3 indicates fair strength and full ROM with gravity. Grade 2 indicates poor strength and full ROM with gravity eliminated (passive motion). Grade 1 indicates trace strength and slight contraction. Grade 0 indicates zero strength and no contraction. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Full ROM against gravity with some resistance.' Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not match the description of muscle strength associated with a grade of 4.

2. A nurse is preparing to measure a client's calf circumference. The nurse performs this procedure by performing which action?

• A. Placing a tape measure around the widest point of the lower leg
• B. Measuring 2 inches above the knee and placing the tape measure around the client's leg at this point
• C. Measuring 2 inches above the ankle and placing the tape measure around the client's leg at this point
• D. Measuring 2 inches below the patella and placing the tape measure around the client's leg at this point

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To measure a client's calf circumference accurately, a nurse should place a non-stretchable tape measure around the widest point of the lower leg. It is crucial to ensure that the tape measure is positioned at the same number of centimeters down from a specific landmark, such as the patella, on both legs for consistency. Placing the tape measure 2 inches above the knee (Option B), 2 inches above the ankle (Option C), or 2 inches below the patella (Option D) would not provide an accurate measurement of the calf circumference. Therefore, these options are incorrect choices.

3. A nurse reviewing a client's record notes that the result of the client's latest Snellen chart vision test was 20/80. The nurse interprets the client's results in which way?

• A. The client is legally blind.
• B. The client has normal vision.
• C. The client can read at a distance of 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet.
• D. The client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When interpreting visual acuity testing results using the Snellen chart, the recorded numeric fraction represents the distance the client is standing from the chart and the distance a normal eye could read that particular line. A reading of 20/80 means that the client can read at 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet. This indicates visual impairment but does not meet the criteria for legal blindness, which is defined as best-corrected vision in the better eye of 20/200 or worse. Normal visual acuity is 20/20. Therefore, the correct interpretation is that the client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet. Choice A is incorrect because 20/80 does not meet the criteria for legal blindness. Choice B is incorrect as the client's vision is impaired. Choice C is incorrect because it reverses the interpretation of the fraction.

4. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan)
• B. labetalol (Normodyne)
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
• D. thiothixene (Navane)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing respiratory depression due to opiate overdose. Naloxone (Narcan) is an opioid antagonist that can rapidly reverse the effects of opiates by competitively binding to opioid receptors and displacing the opiates. This action can restore normal respiration and consciousness. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a non-selective beta-blocker used to manage hypertension, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid overdose. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to manage psychotic disorders, not opioid toxicity.

5. An adult client tells the clinic nurse that he is susceptible to middle ear infections. About which risk factor related to infection of the ears does the nurse question this client?

• A. Loud music
• B. Use of power tools
• C. Occupational noise
• D. Exposure to cigarette smoke

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Exposure to cigarette smoke.' Otitis media (middle ear infection) is associated with various factors like colds, allergies, sore throats, and blockage of the eustachian tubes. Risk factors include exposure to cigarette smoke, youth (as otitis media is usually a childhood disease), congenital abnormalities, immune deficiencies, family history of otitis media, recent upper respiratory infections, and allergies. Choices A, B, and C (Loud music, Use of power tools, and Occupational noise) are more likely to cause hearing loss rather than being direct risk factors for middle ear infections.

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