Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to screen a client's vision with the use of a Snellen chart. The nurse uses which technique?

• A. Tests the right eye, then tests the left eye, and finally tests both eyes together
• B. Assesses both eyes together, then assesses the right and left eyes separately
• C. Asks the client to stand 40 feet from the chart and read the largest line on the chart
• D. Asks the client to stand 40 feet from the chart and read the line that can be read 200 feet away by someone with unimpaired vision

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To test visual acuity with the use of a Snellen chart, the nurse places the chart in a well-lit spot at the client's eye level, with the client positioned exactly 20 feet from the chart. The client shields one eye at a time with an opaque card during the test. After testing each eye separately, both eyes are assessed together. The client is asked to read the smallest line of letters visible and encouraged to read the next smallest line as well. Therefore, option A is correct as it describes the correct technique of testing one eye at a time before assessing both eyes together. Option B is incorrect as it assesses both eyes together first, which is not the standard procedure. Options C and D are incorrect as they suggest standing 40 feet from the chart, which contradicts the standard distance of 20 feet for a Snellen chart test.

2. A nurse is providing information to a group of pregnant clients and their partners about the psychosocial development of an infant. Using Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, the nurse tells the group that infants have which developmental need?

• A. Must have needs ignored for short periods to develop a healthy personality
• B. Need to rely on the fact that their needs will be met
• C. Need to experience frustration, so it is best to allow an infant to cry for a while before meeting his or her needs
• D. Need to tolerate a great deal of frustration and discomfort to develop a healthy personality

Correct answer: B

Rationale: According to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, infants struggle to establish a sense of basic trust rather than a sense of basic mistrust in their world, their caregivers, and themselves. If provided with consistent satisfying experiences that are delivered in a timely manner, infants come to rely on the fact that their needs are met and that, in turn, they will be able to tolerate some degree of frustration and discomfort until those needs are met. This sense of confidence is an early form of trust and provides the foundation for a healthy personality. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with Erikson's theory that emphasizes the importance of infants trusting that their needs will be met.

3. After reviewing the child's immunization record, which scheduled vaccine should the nurse prepare to administer next?

• A. Hib
• B. IPV
• C. MMR
• D. DTaP

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is DTaP. DTaP is administered at 2, 4, and 6 months of age; between 15 and 18 months of age; and between 4 and 6 years of age. Since the child has only received three doses of this vaccine, the next dose of DTaP should be administered. The other options are incorrect because Hib is administered at 2, 4, and 6 months of age and between 12 and 15 months; IPV is administered at 2, 4, and 6 months of age and between 4 and 6 years of age; MMR is administered between 12 and 15 months of age and again between 4 and 6 years of age.

4. What classification of drug is Diltiazem?

• A. Calcium-Channel Blocker
• B. NSAID
• C. ACE Inhibitor
• D. Beta-Blocker

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Diltiazem belongs to the class of calcium-channel blockers, not NSAIDs, ACE Inhibitors, or Beta-Blockers. Calcium-channel blockers like Diltiazem are used to treat conditions such as hypertension by relaxing blood vessels and increasing the supply of blood and oxygen to the heart. Therefore, the correct classification for Diltiazem is a Calcium-Channel Blocker. NSAIDs, ACE Inhibitors, and Beta-Blockers belong to different classes of drugs with distinct mechanisms of action and therapeutic uses, making them incorrect choices for Diltiazem.

5. A rubella titer is performed on a pregnant client, and the results indicate a titer of less than 1:8. The nurse provides the client with which information?

• A. She must have been exposed to the rubella virus at some point in her life.
• B. The test will need to be repeated during the pregnancy.
• C. She has not developed immunity to the rubella virus.
• D. The test results are normal.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A rubella titer of less than 1:8 indicates that the client is not immune to rubella. In such cases, retesting will be necessary during the pregnancy. If the client is found to be non-immune, rubella immunization is required post-delivery. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A suggests exposure, which cannot be confirmed by the titer result. Choice C wrongly implies that the client has not developed immunity, which is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as the titer result is not within the normal immune range.

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