NCLEX-PN
2024 PN NCLEX Questions
1. A patient reports, "I tore 3 of my 4 Rotator cuff muscles in the past."? Which of the following muscles cannot be considered as possibly being torn?
- A. Teres minor
- B. Teres major
- C. Supraspinatus
- D. Infraspinatus
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Teres major. The Rotator Cuff consists of Teres Minor, Infraspinatus, Supraspinatus, and Subscapularis muscles, not Teres major. Teres major is not part of the rotator cuff, so it cannot be considered as possibly being torn. The other choices, Teres minor, Supraspinatus, and Infraspinatus, are all part of the Rotator Cuff and could potentially be torn in this patient's case.
2. What is the primary theory that explains a family's concept of health and illness?
- A. Health Belief Model
- B. Education Factor
- C. Family Health Belief Model
- D. Family Dynamics Model
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the Health Belief Model. The Health Belief Model is a widely recognized theory that explains individuals' perceptions and behaviors related to health and illness. It considers factors such as perceived susceptibility, severity of health issues, benefits of action, and barriers to taking action. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B, 'Education Factor,' is too general and does not specifically address a family's concept of health and illness. Choice C, 'Family Health Belief Model,' is a combination of terms and not a recognized theory. Choice D, 'Family Dynamics Model,' focuses on family interactions rather than explaining a family's concept of health and illness.
3. What classification of drug is Diltiazem?
- A. Calcium-Channel Blocker
- B. NSAID
- C. ACE Inhibitor
- D. Beta-Blocker
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Diltiazem belongs to the class of calcium-channel blockers, not NSAIDs, ACE Inhibitors, or Beta-Blockers. Calcium-channel blockers like Diltiazem are used to treat conditions such as hypertension by relaxing blood vessels and increasing the supply of blood and oxygen to the heart. Therefore, the correct classification for Diltiazem is a Calcium-Channel Blocker. NSAIDs, ACE Inhibitors, and Beta-Blockers belong to different classes of drugs with distinct mechanisms of action and therapeutic uses, making them incorrect choices for Diltiazem.
4. When an elder client asks the nurse whether he will be capable of sexual activity in old age, the best response by the nurse is:
- A. "Elder adults are psychologically and physically capable of engaging in sexual activity regardless of age-related changes."?
- B. "If you haven't been sexually active throughout your life, you will not be able to participate in sexual activity in old age."?
- C. "When intercourse isn't possible, many of your sexual needs can be met through intimacy and touch."?
- D. "You might find it takes longer for you to achieve an erection, but you can maintain it for a longer time."?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best response for the nurse when an elder client asks about capability for sexual activity in old age is to provide reassurance and open communication. Choice A is the correct answer as it acknowledges that elder adults can engage in sexual activity both physically and psychologically despite age-related changes. This response encourages further discussion and addresses the client's concerns. Choices B, C, and D contain some truths but are not the most therapeutic responses. Choice B implies that past sexual activity is a prerequisite for sexual activity in old age, which is not entirely accurate as intimacy can be experienced in various ways. Choice C, while true about alternative ways to meet sexual needs, does not directly address the client's question about sexual activity. Choice D focuses on the physiological aspect of sexual function, which is important but not the most appropriate initial response to the client's query.
5. A nurse is reviewing the findings of a physical examination documented in a client's record. Which piece of information does the nurse recognize as objective data?
- A. The client is allergic to strawberries
- B. The last menstrual period was 30 days ago
- C. The client takes acetaminophen (Tylenol) for headaches
- D. A 1-2-inch scar is present on the lower right portion of the abdomen
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Objective data in a physical examination are findings that the healthcare provider observes or measures directly. In this case, a 1 � 2-inch scar present on the lower right portion of the abdomen is a physical observation. Subjective data are based on what the client reports, such as allergies (Choice A), the date of the last menstrual period (Choice B), and self-reported medication use for headaches (Choice C). While these pieces of information are important for assessing the client's health, they are considered subjective data because they rely on the client's self-report rather than direct observation by the healthcare provider.
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