Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a client's mobility status, the physical examination should start with:

• A. examining their gait.
• B. orienting to time, place, and person.
• C. performing the Romberg test.
• D. conducting the Tandem Walk test.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a client's mobility status, it is crucial to start by examining their gait. Gait assessment is usually conducted as the client walks into the room. Normal gait is described as smooth, flowing, and rhythmic without the need for assistive devices. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent the standard practice of beginning the assessment of mobility status with gait examination.

2. How far should the enema tube be inserted for a client to have a flatus-reducing enema?

• A. 4 inches.
• B. 6 inches.
• C. 2 inches.
• D. 8 inches.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to insert the enema tube 4 inches. Enema tubing must be passed beyond the internal sphincter, which is typically around 4 inches in an adult. Inserting the tube only 2 inches is not far enough to reach this point. On the other hand, inserting the tube 6 or 8 inches is too far and might cause trauma to the bowel, which is unnecessary for a flatus-reducing enema. Therefore, the correct insertion depth of the enema tube is crucial to ensure effectiveness and safety in providing the intended treatment.

3. A client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level?

• A. renal failure
• B. psoriasis
• C. lupus
• D. cirrhosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client with cirrhosis is at risk for developing a high ammonia level due to impaired liver function. The liver normally converts ammonia into urea for excretion. In cirrhosis, this process is compromised, leading to elevated ammonia levels in the blood. Renal failure, psoriasis, and lupus do not typically cause high ammonia levels. Renal failure affects kidney function, while psoriasis and lupus are autoimmune conditions that do not directly impact ammonia metabolism.

4. What does it mean to be a nursing advocate?

• A. makes decisions for others.
• B. encourages persons to make decisions for themselves and acts with or on behalf of the person to support those decisions.
• C. manages the care of others.
• D. is the legal representative for a person.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nursing advocate does not make decisions for others but instead empowers individuals to make decisions for themselves. By encouraging individuals to make their own decisions and supporting them in this process, nursing advocates uphold the principle of self-determination. This approach respects the autonomy and independence of individuals in managing their care. Therefore, the correct answer is to 'encourage persons to make decisions for themselves and act with or on behalf of the person to support those decisions.' Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the role of a nursing advocate in promoting patient autonomy and self-determination.

5. What should be included in the assessment of a client with a cast?

• A. capillary refill, warm toes, no discomfort.
• B. posterior tibial pulses, warm toes.
• C. moist skin essential, pain threshold.
• D. discomfort of the metacarpals.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a client with a cast, it is crucial to check for capillary refill to ensure adequate circulation. Warm toes indicate good circulation, while the absence of discomfort suggests the cast is not causing any pain or undue pressure on the client. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the essential components of assessing a client with a cast.

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