Nursing Elites

1. To remove hard contact lenses from an unresponsive client, what should the nurse do?

• A. Gently irrigate the eye with an irrigating solution from the inner canthus outward
• B. Grasp the lens with a gentle pinching motion
• C. Don sterile gloves before attempting the procedure
• D. Ensure that the lens is centered on the cornea before gently manipulating the lids to release the lens

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When removing hard contact lenses from an unresponsive client, the nurse should ensure that the lens is centered on the cornea before gently manipulating the lids to release the lens. This approach helps prevent scratching the cornea. Gently maneuvering the upper and lower eyelids assists in loosening the lens for easy removal. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because irrigating the eye, grasping the lens, or wearing sterile gloves are not recommended methods for removing hard contact lenses. It is crucial to handle the situation delicately to avoid causing harm or discomfort to the client.

2. The healthcare provider sustains a needle puncture that requires HIV prophylaxis. Which of the following medication regimens should be used?

• A. an antibiotic such as Metronidazole and a protease inhibitor (Saquinavir)
• B. two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
• C. one protease inhibitor such as Nelfinavir
• D. two protease inhibitors

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario of a needle puncture requiring HIV prophylaxis, the CDC recommends initiating treatment with two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, unless there is drug resistance. This regimen is preferred over other options such as a single protease inhibitor or two protease inhibitors due to its effectiveness and safety profile in this specific context. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors are commonly used in post-exposure prophylaxis due to their activity against HIV and lower risk of resistance development compared to other antiretroviral drug classes.

3. At what point in the nurse-client relationship should termination first be addressed?

• A. in the working phase
• B. in the termination phase
• C. in the orientation phase
• D. when the client initially brings up the topic

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Termination in the nurse-client relationship should first be addressed in the orientation phase. This is because the client has a right to know the parameters of the relationship from the beginning. During the orientation phase, it is important to discuss if the relationship is time-limited, inform the client about the number of sessions, or explain that it is open-ended with the termination date to be negotiated later. Addressing termination in the orientation phase helps establish transparency and clear communication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because termination discussions should ideally start at the beginning of the relationship to set appropriate expectations.

4. What is the appropriate ratio of cardiac compressions to ventilations in an adult client for one-person CPR?

• A. 5:01
• B. 1:05
• C. 15:02
• D. 2:15

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 15:2. For one-person CPR on an adult, the ratio of compressions to ventilations is 15:2. This ratio ensures adequate oxygenation while maintaining effective circulation. Choice A (5:1) and Choice B (1:5) are incorrect ratios and do not align with the recommended guidelines for adult CPR. Choice D (2:15) is also incorrect as it reverses the order of compressions and ventilations.

5. A nurse is reviewing the notes written by a nurse on a previous shift. Which note in the client's record reflects the correct use of guidelines for documentation?

• A. The client's wound is healing well.
• B. The client seems anxious.
• C. The client's intake was 360 mL
• D. The client is voiding large amounts

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Quality documentation and reporting require information to be factual, accurate, complete, current, and organized. Choice C, 'The client's intake was 360 mL,' reflects the correct use of guidelines for documentation as it provides a specific and measurable observation. This note meets the criteria for quality documentation by being specific and quantifiable. Choices A, B, and D lack specificity and quantifiability. Choice A includes a subjective term 'well,' choice B uses 'seems' indicating uncertainty, and choice D uses a vague term 'large' without quantifying the amount.

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