NCLEX-PN
Nclex Questions Management of Care
1. Which of the following symptoms is not indicative of autonomic dysreflexia in the client with a spinal cord injury?
- A. sudden onset of headache
- B. flushed face
- C. hypotension
- D. nasal congestion
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is characterized by a sudden onset of symptoms due to an overactive autonomic nervous system. Hypotension is not indicative of autonomic dysreflexia; instead, hypertension is a hallmark sign. Therefore, hypotension is the correct answer. Flushed face, sudden onset of headache, and nasal congestion are classic symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia caused by a noxious stimulus below the level of the spinal cord injury. These symptoms result from the body's attempt to regulate blood pressure when the normal feedback loop is interrupted.
2. When removing a client's gown with an intravenous line, what should the nurse do?
- A. temporarily disconnect the intravenous tubing at a point close to the client and thread it through the gown
- B. cut the gown with scissors
- C. thread the bag and tubing through the gown sleeve, keeping the line intact
- D. temporarily disconnect the tubing from the intravenous container and thread it through the gown
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action when removing a client's gown with an intravenous line is to thread the bag and tubing through the gown sleeve while keeping the line intact. This method ensures that the system remains sterile and reduces the risk of infection. Temporarily disconnecting the tubing at a point close to the client or from the container introduces the potential for contamination. Cutting the gown with scissors should only be done in emergencies as it is not a standard practice and can compromise the integrity of the intravenous line. Therefore, the most appropriate and safe method is to thread the bag and tubing through the gown sleeve.
3. A gastroenterologist should be consulted for clients suffering from:
- A. digestive system diseases
- B. urinary system diseases
- C. female reproductive system diseases
- D. nervous system diseases
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A gastroenterologist specializes in treating diseases and disorders of the digestive system, including the stomach, intestines, liver, and pancreas. Therefore, clients with digestive system diseases should consult a gastroenterologist. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because urinary system diseases are managed by urologists, female reproductive system diseases by gynecologists, and nervous system diseases by neurologists.
4. A licensed practical nurse (LPN) works on an adult medical/surgical unit and has been pulled to work on the burn unit, which cares for clients of all ages. What should the LPN do?
- A. The LPN should take the assignment, but make it clear they will only care for adult clients.
- B. The LPN should take the assignment, but explain the situation to the charge nurse and ask for a quick orientation before starting.
- C. The LPN should refuse to take the assignment, as caring for the infant and child population is not within their scope of practice.
- D. The LPN should take the assignment, but ask to be paired with a more experienced LPN.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, it is crucial for the LPN to demonstrate flexibility and a willingness to adapt to the new assignment that involves caring for clients of all ages. While the LPN may have expertise in a specific nursing area, it is essential to be able to provide care to diverse client populations. Accepting the assignment reflects a commitment to teamwork and patient care. However, to ensure safe and competent care, the LPN should communicate with the charge nurse about the situation. Requesting a quick orientation will help the LPN familiarize themselves with the burn unit's specific requirements, equipment, and protocols. This proactive approach allows the LPN to address any concerns, ask questions, and seek necessary support, ultimately ensuring the best care for all clients in the burn unit. Choice A is incorrect because limiting care to only adult clients may not be feasible in a unit that cares for clients of all ages. Choice C is incorrect as refusing the assignment outright may not be the best approach without considering alternatives. Choice D is not the most effective option as asking to be paired with a more experienced LPN does not address the need for a quick orientation to the new unit.
5. A nurse in charge of a long-term care facility who is working with a nursing assistant on the night shift prepares to take a break. To ensure client safety during the break, which actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply.
- A. Asking the nursing assistant to contact the health care provider during the nurse’s break if a client’s pain medication is not effective
- B. Informing the nursing assistant that she is leaving the nursing unit to get a cup of coffee from a vending machine in the lobby
- C. Asking the nursing assistant to administer a medication placed at the client's bedside if the client awakens
- D. Conducting client rounds before taking the break
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse is responsible for ensuring client safety at all times and must not leave the nursing unit for any reason during the shift. The nurse’s break should be taken in a designated area located on the nursing unit. Before taking the break, the nurse should check all clients to ensure that they are safe and comfortable and that their needs have been met. Conducting client rounds before taking the break is crucial to assess the clients' conditions and address any immediate needs, ensuring their safety. Asking the nursing assistant to contact the health care provider during the nurse’s break is not appropriate as the nurse should handle this responsibility. Leaving the nursing unit to get coffee is not recommended as the nurse should stay within the unit to respond promptly to any client needs. Asking the nursing assistant to administer medication or make clinical decisions is outside the scope of their practice and should not be delegated.
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