Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following symptoms is not indicative of autonomic dysreflexia in the client with a spinal cord injury?

• A. sudden onset of headache
• B. flushed face
• C. hypotension
• D. nasal congestion

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is characterized by a sudden onset of symptoms due to an overactive autonomic nervous system. Hypotension is not indicative of autonomic dysreflexia; instead, hypertension is a hallmark sign. Therefore, hypotension is the correct answer. Flushed face, sudden onset of headache, and nasal congestion are classic symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia caused by a noxious stimulus below the level of the spinal cord injury. These symptoms result from the body's attempt to regulate blood pressure when the normal feedback loop is interrupted.

2. When the nurse is determining the appropriate size of an oropharyngeal airway to insert, what part of a client's body should she measure?

• A. corner of the mouth to the tragus of the ear
• B. corner of the eye to the top of the ear
• C. tip of the chin to the sternum
• D. tip of the nose to the earlobe

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct! When sizing an oropharyngeal airway, the nurse should measure from the corner of the client's mouth to the tragus of the ear. This measurement ensures that the airway is the appropriate length to reach the pharynx without being too long or too short. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not provide the correct anatomical landmarks for determining the size of an oropharyngeal airway. Measuring from the corner of the mouth to the tragus of the ear is a standard method to ensure proper airway size and prevent complications during airway management.

3. When providing perineal care to a female client, how should the nurse perform the procedure?

• A. with gloves, washing the perineal area from front to back
• B. without gloves, having the client perform all care
• C. with gloves, washing the perineal area from back to front
• D. without gloves, pouring water from a sterile bottle

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When providing perineal care to a female client, the nurse should wear gloves and wash the perineal area from front to back. This technique helps prevent the introduction of E. coli and other bacteria into the urethra, reducing the risk of urinary tract infections. Washing from back to front can introduce bacteria from the anal area to the urethra, leading to infections. Performing the procedure without gloves or having the client perform all care does not adhere to infection control practices. Pouring water from a sterile bottle alone may not ensure proper cleansing and infection prevention. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not follow proper perineal care guidelines.

4. The mother of a child who weighs 45 lb asks a nurse about car safety seats. The nurse tells the mother to place the child in which car safety seat?

• A. Car safety seat in the back seat in a face-forward position
• B. Booster seat with one of the car's seat belts placed over the child
• C. Booster seat in a rear-facing position in the front seat
• D. Car safety seat in a face-forward position in the front seat

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the child in a booster seat with one of the car's seat belts placed over the child. A child needs to remain in a car safety seat until he or she weighs 40 lb. Once the child has outgrown the car safety seat, a booster seat is used. Booster seats are designed to raise the child high enough so that the restraining straps are correctly positioned over the child's chest and pelvis, providing optimal safety. Placing a child in a booster seat in a rear-facing position in the front seat is incorrect as children should not be seated in the front seat due to potential airbag-related injuries. Additionally, car safety seats are used for children weighing less than 40 lb and are placed in the middle of the back seat in a rear-facing position for maximum protection.

5. Hearing screening of prematurely born infants is an effective means of identifying disease and is an example of:

• A. Primary prevention.
• B. Secondary prevention.
• C. Tertiary prevention.
• D. Disability prevention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Hearing screening for prematurely born infants falls under secondary prevention, which aims to identify and treat a condition in its early stages to prevent further complications. Primary prevention (choice A) focuses on preventing the disease from occurring, while tertiary prevention (choice C) involves managing complications and preventing disability. Choice D, disability prevention, is not a recognized category of prevention. In this context, the screening helps in early identification of hearing loss, allowing for timely intervention to prevent further impairment or complications, aligning with the principles of secondary prevention.

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