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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Questions Management of Care

1. What is distraction therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Distraction therapy involves directing attention away from pain towards positive stimuli, which can help reduce the perception of pain. Choice A is the correct answer as it accurately defines distraction therapy. Cognitive reappraisal (Choice B) involves changing the way one thinks about a situation to alter its emotional impact, which is different from distraction therapy. Choice C is incorrect because distraction therapy does not involve replacing images of pain with other images, but rather focusing on something unrelated. Choice D is incorrect as distraction therapy does not necessarily involve medication or meditation, but rather the redirection of attention.

2. A nurse calls a health care provider to report that a client with congestive heart failure (CHF) is exhibiting dyspnea and worsening of wheezing. The health care provider, who is in a hurry because of a situation in the emergency department, gives the nurse a telephone prescription for furosemide (Lasix) but does not specify the route of administration. What is the appropriate action on the part of the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Telephone prescriptions involve a health care provider dictating a prescribed therapy over the telephone to the nurse. The nurse must clarify the prescription by repeating it clearly and precisely to the health care provider. The nurse then writes the prescription on the health care provider's prescription sheet or enters it into the electronic medical record. It is crucial not to interpret an unclear prescription or administer a medication by a route that has not been expressly prescribed. In this case, the nurse should call the health care provider who gave the telephone prescription to clarify the prescription, ensuring the correct route of administration is specified. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because administering the medication without clarification, seeking assistance from the nursing supervisor, or choosing an arbitrary route of administration can compromise patient safety and violate medication administration protocols.

3. Following abdominal surgery, a client has a nasogastric (NG) tube in place. What is the purpose of this tube immediately after surgery?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to prevent accumulation of fluids and gas. Immediately after abdominal surgery, the NG tube is used to keep the stomach decompressed, preventing the accumulation of fluids and gas. This helps in maintaining decompression to prevent surgical-site disruption and fluid loss through vomiting. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the primary purpose of the NG tube following abdominal surgery is to prevent complications related to fluid and gas build-up rather than simplifying medication administration, measuring input and output, or collecting specimens.

4. When caring for clients with Buck’s Traction, the major areas of importance should be:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When caring for clients with Buck’s Traction, the major areas of importance should be nutrition, elimination, comfort, and safety. Proper nutrition, including a diet high in protein with adequate fluids, is essential for healing and recovery. Elimination refers to maintaining regular bowel and bladder function. Comfort is crucial to ensure the patient's well-being while in traction, and safety measures should be followed to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. ROM exercises are not typically a primary concern with Buck’s Traction, making choices A and B incorrect. Isotonic exercises are not specifically related to the care of a client in Buck's Traction, making choice D incorrect.

5. Hearing screening of prematurely born infants is an effective means of identifying disease and is an example of:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Hearing screening for prematurely born infants falls under secondary prevention, which aims to identify and treat a condition in its early stages to prevent further complications. Primary prevention (choice A) focuses on preventing the disease from occurring, while tertiary prevention (choice C) involves managing complications and preventing disability. Choice D, disability prevention, is not a recognized category of prevention. In this context, the screening helps in early identification of hearing loss, allowing for timely intervention to prevent further impairment or complications, aligning with the principles of secondary prevention.

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