Nursing Elites

1. A director of nursing at a long-term care center has announced a change to computerized documentation of nursing care. A certified nursing assistant (CNA) on the team, resistant to the change, is not taking an active part in facilitating the implementation of the new procedure. Which strategy would be the best approach to dealing with the conflict?

• A. Meeting with the CNA and encouraging him to express his feelings regarding the change
• B. Ignoring the resistance
• C. Telling the CNA that a licensed practical nurse (LPN) will perform all computer documentation while he documents intake and output and vital signs
• D. Telling the CNA that noncompliance will be documented in the personnel record

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best approach to dealing with resistance to change is through open communication and understanding. Meeting with the CNA and encouraging him to express his feelings regarding the change allows for a constructive dialogue where issues can be addressed, and alternative solutions can be explored. Ignoring the resistance does not help in resolving the conflict and may lead to further issues. Telling the CNA that a licensed practical nurse (LPN) will perform all computer documentation while he documents intake and output and vital signs does not address the underlying concerns of the CNA and may create more resistance. Threatening the CNA with noncompliance consequences may escalate the resistance and create a negative work environment.

2. Which of the following tasks are appropriate for an LPN to perform?

• A. Adjusting the cervical traction device of a 68-year-old client as instructed by the charge nurse.
• B. performing operation on a woman in labour
• C. Assessing a 36-year-old man newly admitted for chest pain.
• D. Obtaining an occult blood sample from a 16-year-old client with ulcerative colitis.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tasks appropriate for an LPN to perform include teaching, obtaining samples, and documenting. LPNs can educate clients on care practices, such as teaching a new mother how to care for her baby. Obtaining samples, like an occult blood sample, falls within the scope of an LPN's responsibilities. Assessments, especially initial assessments, should be conducted by a registered nurse or physician, making option C incorrect. Adjusting devices like a cervical traction device should be done based on direct orders from prescribing providers, not charge nurses, making option A inappropriate for an LPN's role.

3. Which of the following is not an indication for pelvic ultrasonography?

• A. to measure uterine size
• B. to detect multiple pregnancies
• C. to measure renal size
• D. to detect foreign bodies

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pelvic ultrasonography is commonly used to assess various conditions. Choices A, B, and D are all valid reasons for performing pelvic ultrasonography. Measuring uterine size helps evaluate conditions like fibroids, while detecting multiple pregnancies is essential for prenatal care. Furthermore, identifying foreign bodies can aid in diagnosing certain conditions. However, assessing renal size is typically not a primary reason for pelvic ultrasonography, making choice C the correct answer.

4. A client is told that his test is positive, but in fact, the client does not have the disease tested for. Which type of false report is this an example of?

• A. positive
• B. false positive
• C. negative
• D. false negative

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'false positive.' A false-positive result occurs when a test result is labeled positive in error, when the actual result is negative. In this scenario, the client received a positive test result incorrectly, as he does not have the disease being tested for. Choice A ('positive') is too vague and does not specify that the result was incorrect. Choice C ('negative') is the opposite of what happened in the scenario. Choice D ('false negative') refers to a situation where a test result is labeled negative incorrectly, which is not the case in this scenario.

5. What sign might the nurse observe in a client with a high ammonia level?

• A. coma
• B. edema
• C. hypoxia
• D. polyuria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Coma is a sign that a nurse might observe in a client with a high ammonia level. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by impaired brain function, which can progress to coma. Edema (choice B) is swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in body tissues, not typically associated with high ammonia levels. Hypoxia (choice C) is a condition of inadequate oxygen supply to tissues and is not directly related to high ammonia levels. Polyuria (choice D) refers to excessive urination and is not a typical sign of high ammonia levels.

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