Nursing Elites

1. The LPN is receiving the report on a comatose client at the start of the shift at 1500. What statement should be of most concern?

• A. The client was repositioned on his right side at 1100.
• B. The client was bathed, and the skin was assessed head-to-toe at 0900 with no abnormal findings.
• C. The client's PEG tube was changed 6 months ago.
• D. The client's indwelling urinary catheter was last changed 5 days ago.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When caring for a comatose client, it is crucial to monitor and maintain the integrity of the indwelling urinary catheter to prevent urinary tract infections and other complications. Changing the urinary catheter less frequently than recommended increases the risk of infection. In this scenario, the most concerning issue is the prolonged duration since the last change of the indwelling urinary catheter, which poses an immediate risk to the client's health. While repositioning every 2 hours is essential to prevent skin breakdown, the most critical aspect in this case is the catheter care. Bathing and skin assessment are important for overall hygiene and skin integrity but are not as urgent as catheter care. The timing of the PEG tube change, while relevant for care planning, is not as immediate a concern as the indwelling urinary catheter status.

2. Which of the following is an indication for electroencephalography?

• A. paralysis
• B. neuropathy
• C. seizure disorder
• D. myocardial infarction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'seizure disorder.' Electroencephalography is used to assess clients with seizure disorders by recording the brain's electrical activity. Seizure disorder is a primary indication for an EEG as it helps in diagnosing and managing seizure activity. Paralysis (choice A) is not typically an indication for an EEG as it relates to loss of muscle function rather than brain activity. Neuropathy (choice B) involves nerve damage and is not directly assessed by an EEG. Myocardial infarction (choice D) is related to heart issues and is not a condition that an EEG is used to diagnose.

3. All of the following are causes of vaginal bleeding in late pregnancy except:

• A. Placenta previa.
• B. Eclampsia.
• C. Abruptio placentae.
• D. Uterine rupture.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eclampsia. Eclampsia is a disorder of pregnancy characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema. This condition can cause seizures and/or coma but does not typically present with vaginal bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are abnormal conditions that can cause bleeding, particularly in the third trimester. Placenta previa (choice A) is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to vaginal bleeding. Abruptio placentae (choice C) is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, causing vaginal bleeding. Uterine rupture (choice D) is a serious obstetrical emergency where the uterus tears during pregnancy or childbirth, resulting in severe bleeding.

4. A test that can correctly identify those who do not have a given disease is:

• A. specific.
• B. sensitive.
• C. negative culture.
• D. marginal finding.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'specific.' A specific test correctly identifies individuals who do not have a particular disease. In this case, since the lab culture report is negative for the suspected infection, it means the test is good at ruling out the disease. 'Sensitive' (choice B) would be incorrect as sensitivity refers to a test's ability to correctly identify individuals who do have the disease. 'Negative culture' (choice C) is incorrect as it describes the result rather than the test's characteristic. 'Marginal finding' (choice D) is unrelated to the concept of correctly identifying individuals without the disease.

5. The client has a new prosthetic hip, and the nurse is repositioning them. Which position should be avoided to prevent injury to the new prosthetic hip?

• A. abduction of the hip
• B. adduction of the hip
• C. flexing the hip at 80° flexion
• D. flexing the hip at 90°

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'adduction of the hip.' When a client has a new prosthetic hip, adduction (movement of the leg toward the midline of the body) should be avoided to prevent injury to the new prosthetic hip. Abduction (movement of the leg away from the midline) is typically allowed and may even be encouraged. Flexing the hip at certain degrees is acceptable, but adduction should be avoided to prevent complications or dislocation of the prosthetic hip. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not pose a direct risk to the new prosthetic hip compared to adduction.

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