a teenage client is admitted to the hospital because of acetaminophen tylenol overdose overdoses of acetaminophen can precipitate life threatening ab
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Best NCLEX Next Gen Prep

1. A teenage client is admitted to the hospital because of acetaminophen (Tylenol) overdose. Overdoses of acetaminophen can precipitate life-threatening abnormalities in which of the following organs?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Acetaminophen is extensively metabolized in the liver. An overdose of acetaminophen can lead to severe liver damage and even liver failure, which can be life-threatening. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because although prolonged use of acetaminophen may lead to an increased risk of renal dysfunction, a single overdose does not typically cause life-threatening abnormalities in the lungs, kidneys, or adrenal glands.

2. A nurse is preparing to assess the function of a client's spinal accessory nerve. Which action does the nurse ask the client to take to aid assessment of this nerve?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To assess cranial nerve XI (spinal accessory nerve), the examiner checks the sternomastoid and trapezius muscles for equal size. Equal strength is assessed by asking the client to rotate the head forcibly against resistance applied to the side of the chin and by asking the client to shrug the shoulders against resistance. These movements should feel equally strong on the two sides. The client is asked to smile as a test of the function of cranial nerve VII (facial nerve). The client's ability to clench the teeth is used to assess the motor function of cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve). The client's taste perception is used to assess the sensory function of cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve). Therefore, the correct action to assess the spinal accessory nerve is to ask the client to shrug the shoulders against resistance. The other options are used to assess different cranial nerves, making them incorrect choices.

3. Which of these is not a symptom of Serotonin Syndrome?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Serotonin syndrome, caused by an excess of serotonin, typically presents with symptoms such as altered mental status (confusion), neuromuscular abnormalities (tremors), and autonomic dysfunction (fever). Edema, which refers to swelling caused by fluid retention in the body tissues, is not a common symptom associated with serotonin syndrome. Therefore, the correct answer is 'edema.' Choice A, 'edema,' is the correct answer as it is not typically seen in serotonin syndrome. Choice B, 'fever,' is a symptom of serotonin syndrome, as it can cause autonomic dysfunction. Choice C, 'confusion,' is a common symptom due to altered mental status in serotonin syndrome. Choice D, 'tremors,' is also a common symptom due to neuromuscular abnormalities in serotonin syndrome.

4. A pregnant client is scheduled to undergo a transabdominal ultrasound, and the nurse provides information to the client about the procedure. The nurse provides which information?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is that the client may need to drink fluids before the test and may not void until the test has been completed. For a transabdominal ultrasound, the woman is positioned on her back with her head elevated and turned slightly to one side to prevent supine hypotension. A wedge or rolled blanket is placed under one hip to help her maintain this position comfortably. If a full bladder is necessary, the woman is instructed to drink several glasses of clear fluid 1 hour before the test and told that she should not void until the test has been completed. Warm mineral oil or transmission gel is spread over her abdomen, and the sonographer slowly moves a transducer over the abdomen to obtain a picture. The procedure typically takes 10 to 30 minutes, making choice A incorrect. Choice C is incorrect because a probe is not inserted into the vagina for a transabdominal ultrasound. Choice D is incorrect because the woman is positioned on her back with her head elevated and turned slightly to one side, not specifically on her back.

5. When a couple experiencing infertility presents for a fertility workup, which of the following procedures should the nurse prepare the couple to have first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Semen analysis is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for a couple experiencing infertility. It is the least invasive of the listed tests, and since male factor infertility contributes to around 35% of cases, assessing semen parameters early is crucial. Hysterosalpingography is a radiographic test to evaluate tubal patency and uterine cavity abnormalities. Endometrial biopsy assesses endometrial receptivity post-ovulation. Transvaginal ultrasound is mainly used in infertility treatment to monitor follicle development, oocyte maturity, and luteal phase defects. Choices A, C, and D are more invasive, require specialized expertise, and are costlier. If semen analysis yields normal results, further tests may be warranted.

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