if a client has chronic renal failure which of the following sexual complications is the client at risk of developing
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NCLEX-PN

NCLEX PN Practice Questions Quizlet

1. If a client has chronic renal failure, which of the following sexual complications is the client at risk of developing?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In chronic renal failure, untreated, the client is at risk of developing decreased plasma testosterone. This condition leads to atrophy of the testicles and decreased spermatogenesis. Retrograde ejaculation is not a complication of chronic renal failure but can occur after transurethral resection of the prostate. The testicles atrophy in chronic renal failure; they do not hypertrophy. Additionally, chronic renal failure often leads to a state of depression, not euphoria.

2. What type of immunity do vaccines provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Vaccines provide active immunity by stimulating the immune system to produce antibodies against specific pathogens. Choice B, passive immunity, is acquired from ready-made antibodies, not through vaccination. Choice C, transplacental immunity, is a form of passive immunity transferred from mother to infant, not acquired through vaccines. Therefore, the correct answer is active immunity.

3. A multigravida pregnant woman asks the nurse when she will start to feel fetal movements. Around which week of gestation does the nurse tell the mother that fetal movements are first noticed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fetal movements (quickening) are first noticed by multigravida pregnant women at 16 to 20 weeks of gestation and gradually increase in frequency and strength. This is when the mother typically begins to feel the baby's movements. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because fetal movements are not felt as early as 6, 8, or 12 weeks of gestation. At 6 weeks, the embryo's movements are not yet strong enough to be felt by the mother. By 8 weeks, the movements are still too subtle to be perceived. At 12 weeks, although fetal movements start, they are usually not strong enough to be felt by the mother.

4. When evaluating a kinetic family drawing, which of the following actions is most effective?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When evaluating a kinetic family drawing, noting the omission of any family members is an effective action. It is crucial to observe and analyze all aspects of the drawing, including what is missing. This can provide valuable insights into the child's perception and relationships within the family. Asking the child to draw their family doing something (Choice A) is more related to initial instruction rather than evaluation. Offering specific suggestions (Choice B) can influence the child's drawing and should be avoided to maintain the authenticity of the representation. Discouraging the child from talking about the drawing (Choice C) is counterproductive as verbal expression can provide additional context and understanding.

5. A nurse in the newborn nursery, assisting with data collection for a newborn, prepares to measure the chest circumference. The nurse places the tape measure around the infant at which location?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The chest circumference of the infant is measured at the level of the nipples. It is usually 2 to 3 cm smaller than the head circumference. The average chest circumference is 30.5 to 33 cm (12-13 inches). When there is molding of the head, the head and chest measurements may be equal at birth. Placing the tape measure at the level of the nipples ensures accuracy and consistency in newborn assessment. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as the chest circumference is specifically measured at the level of the nipples to obtain precise measurements.

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