Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is explaining a nonstress test to a pregnant client. The nurse explains that the results are nonreactive if which finding is noted on the electronic monitoring recording strip?

• A. Two fetal heart accelerations within a 20-minute period, peaking at 15 beats/min above baseline and lasting 15 seconds from baseline to baseline
• B. Accelerations without fetal movement with fetal heart rate (FHR) increases of 15 beats/min for 15 seconds
• C. Acceleration of the FHR by 25 to 30 beats/min for at least 15 seconds in response to fetal movement
• D. Absence of accelerations after fetal movement

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Absence of accelerations after fetal movement.' In a nonreactive (nonreassuring) stress test, the monitor recording would not show accelerations after fetal movement within a 40-minute period. This absence of accelerations indicates a nonreactive result. Choices A, B, and C describe different patterns of fetal heart rate accelerations that are not indicative of a nonreactive result in a nonstress test, making them incorrect. Choice A describes the characteristics of a reactive (reassuring) result, where there should be at least two fetal heart accelerations within a 20-minute period, peaking at least 15 beats/min above the baseline, and lasting 15 seconds from baseline to baseline. Choice B incorrectly states 'Accelerations without fetal movement,' which is contradictory. Choice C describes an acceleration response to fetal movement, which does not signify a nonreactive result.

2. While a client is on total parenteral nutrition, which of the following values should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. calcium
• B. magnesium
• C. glucose
• D. cholesterol

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Glucose should be monitored closely when a client is on total parenteral nutrition due to the high glucose concentration in the solutions. Monitoring glucose levels is crucial to prevent complications such as hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Calcium and magnesium are usually monitored to assess electrolyte imbalances, while cholesterol levels are not directly impacted by total parenteral nutrition. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are not the primary values that need close monitoring during total parenteral nutrition.

3. A nurse assisting with data collection regarding the client's eyes notes that the pupils get larger when the client looks at an object in the distance and become smaller when the client looks at a nearby object. How does the nurse document this finding?

• A. Myopia
• B. Hyperopia
• C. Photophobia
• D. Accommodation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Accommodation. Accommodation is the process by which the eye adjusts its focus to see objects at different distances. When the pupils get larger when the client looks at an object in the distance and become smaller when looking at a nearby object, it indicates the normal functioning of the eye's accommodation mechanism. Myopia refers to nearsightedness, where distant objects appear blurry. Hyperopia refers to farsightedness, where close objects appear blurry. Photophobia is an abnormal sensitivity to light. Therefore, the correct term to document the finding of the pupils adjusting based on the distance of the object is 'Accommodation.'

4. While assisting with data collection, the client informs the nurse that he is having difficulty swallowing medications and food. The nurse gathers additional subjective data and documents that the client is experiencing which disorder?

• A. Pyrosis
• B. Anorexia
• C. Eructation
• D. Dysphagia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Dysphagia.' Dysphagia is the term used to indicate difficulty swallowing, which can occur in disorders of the throat or esophagus. Anorexia refers to a loss of appetite, not difficulty swallowing. Eructation is the medical term for belching, not difficulty swallowing. Pyrosis is heartburn, a burning sensation in the esophagus and stomach caused by the reflux of gastric acid, not difficulty swallowing.

5. A nurse assisting with data collection is testing the cochlear portion of the acoustic nerve (cranial nerve VIII). Which action does the nurse take to test this nerve?

• A. Asking the client to raise their eyebrows and looking for symmetry
• B. Asking the client to clench the teeth, then palpating the masseter muscles just above the mandibular angle
• C. Asking the client to close the eyes and then identify light and sharp touch with a cotton ball and a pin on both sides of the face
• D. Asking the client to close their eyes and then indicate when a ticking watch is heard as the nurse brings the watch closer to the client's ear

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To test the cochlear portion of the acoustic nerve (cranial nerve VIII), the nurse should have the client close their eyes and indicate when a ticking watch is heard as the nurse moves the watch closer to the client's ear. This action assesses the client's ability to perceive auditory stimuli, as the cochlear portion of the acoustic nerve is responsible for hearing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Asking the client to raise their eyebrows to check for symmetry is a method to test the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII). Asking the client to clench their teeth and palpating the masseter muscles tests the motor component of the trigeminal nerve. Having the client identify light and sharp touch on both sides of the face is a way to test the sensory component of the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V).

Similar Questions