Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is explaining a nonstress test to a pregnant client. The nurse explains that the results are nonreactive if which finding is noted on the electronic monitoring recording strip?

• A. Two fetal heart accelerations within a 20-minute period, peaking at 15 beats/min above baseline and lasting 15 seconds from baseline to baseline
• B. Accelerations without fetal movement with fetal heart rate (FHR) increases of 15 beats/min for 15 seconds
• C. Acceleration of the FHR by 25 to 30 beats/min for at least 15 seconds in response to fetal movement
• D. Absence of accelerations after fetal movement

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Absence of accelerations after fetal movement.' In a nonreactive (nonreassuring) stress test, the monitor recording would not show accelerations after fetal movement within a 40-minute period. This absence of accelerations indicates a nonreactive result. Choices A, B, and C describe different patterns of fetal heart rate accelerations that are not indicative of a nonreactive result in a nonstress test, making them incorrect. Choice A describes the characteristics of a reactive (reassuring) result, where there should be at least two fetal heart accelerations within a 20-minute period, peaking at least 15 beats/min above the baseline, and lasting 15 seconds from baseline to baseline. Choice B incorrectly states 'Accelerations without fetal movement,' which is contradictory. Choice C describes an acceleration response to fetal movement, which does not signify a nonreactive result.

2. Which of the following values should be monitored closely while a client is on total parenteral nutrition?

• A. calcium
• B. magnesium
• C. glucose
• D. cholesterol

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Glucose is the correct value to monitor closely while a client is on total parenteral nutrition. Total parenteral nutrition solutions have high glucose concentrations, necessitating monitoring to prevent complications like hyperglycemia. Calcium, magnesium, and cholesterol are not typically closely monitored during total parenteral nutrition as they are not directly related to the solution's composition or potential associated complications.

3. A nurse is preparing to assess the fetal heart rate (FHR) of a client who is 14 weeks pregnant. Which piece of equipment does the nurse use to assess the FHR?

• A. Stethoscope
• B. Doppler transducer
• C. Fetoscope
• D. Pulse oximetry on the client and a fetoscope

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To assess the fetal heart rate of a client who is 14 weeks pregnant, the nurse should use a Doppler transducer. Fetal heart sounds can be heard with a fetoscope by 20 weeks of gestation. The Doppler transducer amplifies fetal heart sounds so that they are audible by 10 to 12 weeks of gestation, making it the most appropriate choice for this scenario. Fetal heart sounds cannot be heard with a stethoscope. Pulse oximetry is not used to auscultate fetal heart sounds, so it is an incorrect choice in this context.

4. When obtaining a health history on a menopausal woman, which information should a nurse recognize as a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy?

• A. family history of stroke
• B. ovaries removed before age 45
• C. frequent hot flashes and/or night sweats
• D. unexplained vaginal bleeding

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When obtaining a health history on a menopausal woman, unexplained vaginal bleeding should be recognized as a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy. This is because it can be a sign of underlying issues that need to be addressed before starting hormone therapy. A family history of stroke is not a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy unless the woman herself has a history of stroke or blood-clotting events. Ovaries removed before age 45 is not a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy. Frequent hot flashes and/or night sweats can be relieved by hormone replacement therapy; therefore, they are not contraindications.

5. The LPN is caring for a client newly diagnosed with HIV. Which statement made by the client regarding antiretroviral therapy (ART) would require correction from the nurse?

• A. "If I start ART and use condoms, I'm less likely to transmit HIV to my partner."?
• B. "I can still use ART even though I am Hepatitis C positive."?
• C. "I will need to be on ART indefinitely."?
• D. "I know I will need to come back for blood draws so that I can begin ART when my CD4 count is over 1,000 cells/mm3."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the statement, "I know I will need to come back for blood draws so that I can begin ART when my CD4 count is over 1,000 cells/mm3."? This statement would require correction from the nurse because initiating ART when the CD4 count is over 1,000 cells/mm3 is not supported by guidelines. The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends making treatment a priority for those with a CD4 count of ?350 cells/mm3, as early intervention can help delay disease progression. Therefore, waiting for a CD4 count of over 1,000 cells/mm3 is not in line with current recommendations. Choice A is correct, as studies have shown that using condoms along with ART can significantly reduce the risk of HIV transmission to sexual partners. Choice B is also correct because being Hepatitis C positive does not contraindicate the use of ART. Choice C is correct as well, as ART is typically needed indefinitely to maintain viral suppression and manage HIV. Therefore, the only statement that would require correction is Choice D.

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