Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is using an otoscope to inspect the ears of an adult client. Which action does the professional take before inserting the otoscope?

• A. Pulling the pinna up and back
• B. Pulling the pinna down and forward
• C. Tipping the client's head down and toward the examiner
• D. Tipping the client's head down and away from the examiner

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In an adult client, the healthcare professional should pull the pinna up and back before inserting the otoscope. This action helps straighten the S shape of the ear canal, making it easier to insert the otoscope directly and comfortably. Tipping the client's head down and toward or away from the examiner is not the correct action when using an otoscope in an adult. Pulling the pinna down and forward is typically done when examining an infant or a child younger than 3 years old to straighten their ear canal for better visualization.

2. When testing the function of the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves, which parameter does a nurse check to determine their function?

• A. Tongue symmetry
• B. Eye movements
• C. Facial symmetry
• D. Corneal reflex

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eye movements. When assessing the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves, evaluating eye movements is crucial. This assessment includes checking the pupils for size, regularity, equality, light reactions, accommodation, and extraocular movements in various gaze positions. Tongue symmetry is primarily used to evaluate cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal nerve) function. Facial symmetry is a key indicator of cranial nerve VII (facial nerve) function. The corneal reflex assesses sensory afferents in cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve) and motor efferents in cranial nerve VII (facial nerve).

3. Which of the following foods should be avoided by clients who are prone to developing heartburn as a result of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?

• A. lettuce
• B. eggs
• C. chocolate
• D. butterscotch

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is chocolate. Ingestion of chocolate can reduce lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure, leading to reflux and clinical symptoms of GERD. Lettuce, eggs, and butterscotch do not affect LES pressure and are less likely to trigger heartburn in individuals with GERD. Therefore, clients who are prone to developing heartburn due to GERD should avoid consuming chocolate to manage their symptoms effectively.

4. A middle-aged woman tells the nurse that she has been experiencing irregular menses for the past six months. The nurse should assess the woman for other symptoms of:

• A. climacteric
• B. menopause
• C. perimenopause
• D. postmenopause

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Perimenopause refers to a period in which hormonal changes occur gradually, ovarian function diminishes, and menses become irregular. It typically lasts around five years. In the case of the middle-aged woman experiencing irregular menses for six months, she aligns with perimenopause as it involves irregular menstrual cycles, one of the common symptoms during this transitional phase. Climacteric is a term describing the period of life with physiologic changes leading to the end of a woman's reproductive ability but not specifically characterized by irregular menses. Menopause marks the permanent cessation of menses and does not involve the transitional irregularities seen in perimenopause. Postmenopause is the phase after the completion of menopausal changes.

5. A nurse calculates a newborn infant's Apgar score 1 minute after birth and determines that the score is 6. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation
• B. Gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen
• C. Recheck the score in 5 minutes
• D. Provide no action except to support the infant's spontaneous efforts

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Apgar score is a method for rapidly evaluating an infant's cardiorespiratory adaptation after birth. The nurse assigns scores in five areas: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex response, and color, totaling the scores. A score of 8 to 10 requires no action other than supporting the infant's spontaneous efforts and observation. A score of 4 to 7 indicates the need to gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. If the score is 1 to 3, the infant requires resuscitation. Therefore, in this scenario with an Apgar score of 6, the correct action is to gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. Initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation would be excessive at this point, and rechecking the score in 5 minutes may delay necessary interventions. Providing no action except to support the infant's spontaneous efforts is insufficient for a score of 6, indicating the need for stimulation and oxygen administration.

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