Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is telling a pregnant client about the signs that must be reported to the health care provider. The nurse tells the client that the health care provider should be contacted if which occurs?

• A. Puffiness of the face
• B. Breast tenderness
• C. Morning sickness
• D. Urinary frequency

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During pregnancy, it is important to be aware of danger signs that warrant contacting the healthcare provider. Puffiness of the face, especially around the eyes, can indicate a serious condition like preeclampsia. Other danger signs include vaginal bleeding, rupture of membranes, severe abdominal pain, visual disturbances, persistent vomiting, and changes in fetal movements. Morning sickness, breast tenderness, and urinary frequency are common symptoms of pregnancy and are not typically concerning unless they become severe or persistent, and do not usually require immediate medical attention.

2. During data collection of a client with suspected carpal tunnel syndrome, a nurse plans to perform the Phalen test. The nurse should ask the client to perform which activity?

• A. Dorsiflex the foot
• B. Plantarflex the foot
• C. Hold the hands back to back while flexing the wrists 90 degrees for 60 seconds
• D. Hyperextend the fingers with the palmar surfaces of the hands touching, holding the position for 60 seconds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the Phalen test, the nurse asks the client to hold the hands back to back while flexing the wrists 90 degrees. This position puts pressure on the median nerve, eliciting symptoms in carpal tunnel syndrome. Dorsiflexing or plantarflexing the foot and hyperextending the fingers are not associated with testing for carpal tunnel syndrome. Acute flexion of the wrist for 60 seconds produces no symptoms in the normal hand.

3. How often should the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions be changed?

• A. every 24 hours
• B. every 36 hours
• C. every 48 hours
• D. every 72 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to change the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions every 24 hours. This frequency is necessary due to the high risk of bacterial growth associated with TPN solutions. Changing the tubing every 24 hours helps prevent contamination and bloodstream infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because waiting longer intervals increases the risk of introducing harmful bacteria into the patient's system, leading to potentially severe complications.

4. A healthcare professional reviewing a client's record notes documentation that the client has melena. How does the healthcare professional detect the presence of melena?

• A. By checking the client's urine for blood
• B. By checking the client's stool for blood
• C. By checking the client's urine for a decrease in output
• D. By checking the client's bowel movements for diarrhea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Melena' is the term used to describe abnormal black tarry stool that has a distinctive odor and contains digested blood. It usually results from bleeding in the upper gastrointestinal tract and is often a sign of peptic ulcer disease or small bowel disease. The presence of melena is detected by checking the client's stool for blood. Blood in the client's urine, decreased urine output, and diarrhea are not associated with the assessment for melena.

5. A nurse calculates a newborn infant's Apgar score 1 minute after birth and determines that the score is 6. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation
• B. Gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen
• C. Recheck the score in 5 minutes
• D. Provide no action except to support the infant's spontaneous efforts

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Apgar score is a method for rapidly evaluating an infant's cardiorespiratory adaptation after birth. The nurse assigns scores in five areas: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex response, and color, totaling the scores. A score of 8 to 10 requires no action other than supporting the infant's spontaneous efforts and observation. A score of 4 to 7 indicates the need to gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. If the score is 1 to 3, the infant requires resuscitation. Therefore, in this scenario with an Apgar score of 6, the correct action is to gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. Initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation would be excessive at this point, and rechecking the score in 5 minutes may delay necessary interventions. Providing no action except to support the infant's spontaneous efforts is insufficient for a score of 6, indicating the need for stimulation and oxygen administration.

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