Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is telling a pregnant client about the signs that must be reported to the health care provider. The nurse tells the client that the health care provider should be contacted if which occurs?

• A. Puffiness of the face
• B. Breast tenderness
• C. Morning sickness
• D. Urinary frequency

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During pregnancy, it is important to be aware of danger signs that warrant contacting the healthcare provider. Puffiness of the face, especially around the eyes, can indicate a serious condition like preeclampsia. Other danger signs include vaginal bleeding, rupture of membranes, severe abdominal pain, visual disturbances, persistent vomiting, and changes in fetal movements. Morning sickness, breast tenderness, and urinary frequency are common symptoms of pregnancy and are not typically concerning unless they become severe or persistent, and do not usually require immediate medical attention.

2. A 35-year-old Latin-American client wishes to lose weight to reduce her chances of developing heart disease and diabetes. The client states, "I do not know how to make my diet work with the kind of foods that my family eats."? What should the nurse do first to help the client determine a suitable diet for disease prevention?

• A. Provide her with copies of the approved dietary guidelines from the American Diabetic Association and the American Heart Association.
• B. Ask the client to provide a list of the types of foods she eats to determine how to best meet her needs.
• C. Provide a high-protein diet plan for the client.
• D. Provide the client with information related to risk factors for heart disease and diabetes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the client to provide a list of the types of foods she eats to determine how to best meet her needs. Assessment is the first step in helping the client establish a suitable diet for disease prevention. By understanding the client's current dietary habits, the nurse can tailor recommendations based on the approved dietary guidelines from the American Diabetic Association and the American Heart Association. Providing a high-protein diet plan without assessing the client's current diet may not align with her cultural preferences or health goals. While educating the client on risk factors for heart disease and diabetes is essential, it is not the initial step in developing a personalized dietary plan.

3. An older client reports that she has been awakening during the night, awakes early in the morning and is unable to fall back to sleep, and feels sleepy during the daytime. Based on these reported data, what should the nurse do?

• A. Encourage the client to consume stimulants such as caffeinated coffee or tea during the daytime hours.
• B. Ask the registered nurse to obtain a prescription for a nighttime sedative.
• C. Report the findings to the registered nurse.
• D. Document the findings in the medical record.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Age-related changes in sleep include reduced sleep efficiency, increased incidence of nocturnal awakening, increased incidence of early-morning awakening, and increased daytime sleepiness. Since the reported data are normal age-related changes, the appropriate action for the nurse would be to document the findings in the medical record. Reporting the findings to the registered nurse is unnecessary as these changes are expected with aging and do not indicate a need for immediate intervention. Prescribing sedatives should be avoided as a first-line approach due to potential side effects and risks, especially in older adults. Encouraging the consumption of stimulants like caffeinated beverages during the daytime may further disrupt sleep patterns, which is counterproductive in addressing the client's reported sleep issues.

4. Which of the following vaccines contains a live virus?

• A. varicella
• B. IPV
• C. DTaP
• D. hepatitis B

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is varicella. Varicella vaccine contains a live, weakened form of the varicella-zoster virus. Choice B, IPV (inactivated poliovirus vaccine), is an inactivated vaccine, not a live virus vaccine. Choices C and D, DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis vaccine) and hepatitis B vaccine, respectively, do not contain live viruses. Varicella is the only live virus vaccine among the options.

5. The nurse is assessing an 18-month-old. Which of these statements made by the parent or caregiver would require follow-up?

• A. I'm worried that my child is not using two-word phrases yet.
• B. My child has recently taken a few steps but does not seem stable when standing.
• C. My child seems to have developed separation anxiety when I leave.
• D. I'm letting my child use a spoon to eat.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'My child has recently taken a few steps but does not seem stable when standing.' By 18 months of age, children should have taken their first steps and stand well. If a child hasn't made progress by this age, a physical therapy evaluation may be necessary. It is normal for an 18-month-old to start using a spoon to eat. However, the use of two-word phrases is not typically expected until 2 years of age. Separation anxiety is a common developmental phase that typically occurs between 6 and 18 months, so it does not require immediate follow-up. Therefore, the statement about the child not being stable when standing raises a red flag and necessitates further evaluation.

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