Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is telling a pregnant client about the signs that must be reported to the health care provider. The nurse tells the client that the health care provider should be contacted if which occurs?

• A. Puffiness of the face
• B. Breast tenderness
• C. Morning sickness
• D. Urinary frequency

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During pregnancy, it is important to be aware of danger signs that warrant contacting the healthcare provider. Puffiness of the face, especially around the eyes, can indicate a serious condition like preeclampsia. Other danger signs include vaginal bleeding, rupture of membranes, severe abdominal pain, visual disturbances, persistent vomiting, and changes in fetal movements. Morning sickness, breast tenderness, and urinary frequency are common symptoms of pregnancy and are not typically concerning unless they become severe or persistent, and do not usually require immediate medical attention.

2. Which of the following is an example of an extended care facility?

• A. Home health agency
• B. Suicide prevention center
• C. State-owned psychiatric hospital
• D. Nursing facility

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An extended care facility typically provides long-term care for individuals who require continuous assistance with activities of daily living. A nursing facility fits this description as it offers skilled nursing care and assistance with daily activities. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a home health agency provides care in the patient's home, a suicide prevention center focuses on mental health crisis intervention, and a state-owned psychiatric hospital offers mental health treatment, none of which are synonymous with extended care facilities.

3. A 4-year-old client is unable to go to sleep at night in the hospital. Which nursing intervention best promotes sleep for the child?

• A. turning out the room light and closing the door
• B. tiring the child during the evening with quiet activities
• C. identifying the child's home bedtime rituals and following them
• D. encouraging visitation by friends during the evening

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a 4-year-old client struggling to sleep in the hospital, it is essential to identify and replicate their home bedtime rituals. This familiarity can provide comfort and promote better sleep. Turning out the room light and closing the door (Choice A) might increase the child's fear by plunging the room into darkness, making it an incorrect choice. Tiring the child with quiet activities (Choice B) is incorrect as it may stimulate rather than calm the child. Encouraging visitation by friends (Choice D) can lead to increased excitement, hindering the child's ability to fall asleep instead of promoting a restful environment.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who has dysphagia related to a stroke. The nurse works with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration. What is this an example of?

• A. Health promotion
• B. Secondary prevention
• C. Tertiary prevention
• D. Primary prevention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse working with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves early detection and intervention to prevent complications or worsening of a condition. In this case, the nurse is helping to prevent aspiration pneumonia by providing education and guidance on safe eating and drinking practices after the client has already experienced dysphagia due to a stroke. Choice A, health promotion, focuses on empowering individuals to adopt healthy behaviors to improve overall well-being and prevent illness. It is more about promoting general health rather than specific interventions related to a particular condition like dysphagia. Choice C, tertiary prevention, involves managing and rehabilitating a condition to prevent further complications or disabilities. In this scenario, the nurse is not yet addressing complications but rather actively preventing them. Choice D, primary prevention, aims to prevent the onset of a disease or condition before it occurs. The client in this case already has dysphagia, so the focus is on preventing further complications, making it a secondary prevention intervention.

5. A nurse reviewing the physical assessment findings in a client's health care record notes documentation that the Phalen test caused numbness and burning. Which disorder does the nurse, on the basis of this finding, conclude that the client has?

• A. Scoliosis
• B. Bone deformity
• C. Heberden nodules
• D. Carpal tunnel syndrome

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The Phalen test is specifically used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome. In this test, the client is asked to hold their hands back to back while flexing the wrists 90 degrees, which can reproduce the numbness and burning sensation experienced by individuals with carpal tunnel syndrome. Scoliosis is a condition characterized by abnormal lateral curvature of the spine, not related to the Phalen test. Bone deformity is a general term that does not specifically relate to the symptoms described. Heberden nodules are bony swellings that occur in osteoarthritis and are not assessed through the Phalen test.

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