Nursing Elites

1. Client self-determination is the primary focus of:

• A. malpractice insurance.
• B. nursing's advocacy for clients.
• C. confidentiality.
• D. health care.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Client self-determination is the primary focus of nursing's advocacy for clients. Nurses advocate for their clients' right to autonomy and self-determination, ensuring that the clients' preferences and choices are respected. Confidentiality, on the other hand, involves maintaining the privacy of the client and their information. Health care is a broad term encompassing various aspects of medical services. Malpractice insurance is a type of insurance that provides coverage for professionals in case of negligence or malpractice, not directly related to client self-determination.

2. When assisting with data collection on language development in a toddler from a bilingual family, what characteristic would a nurse expect?

• A. Is more advanced than expected
• B. Is developing as expected
• C. Is slower than expected
• D. Will require assistance from a speech therapist

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing language development in a toddler from a bilingual family, a nurse would expect the child's language development to be slower than expected. Various factors, such as physical maturity and reinforcement received, can influence the pace of language development. Children from bilingual families, twins, and non-firstborn children may exhibit slower language development. Therefore, it is common for the language development of a toddler from a bilingual family to be slower than expected. This characteristic does not necessarily imply a need for speech therapy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because, in this context, the language development of the child is more likely to be slower than expected rather than more advanced, developing as expected, or requiring speech therapy.

3. A nurse is preparing to assess the function of a client's spinal accessory nerve. Which action does the nurse ask the client to take to aid assessment of this nerve?

• A. Smiling
• B. Clenching the teeth
• C. Shrugging the shoulders against the nurse's resistance
• D. Identifying by taste a substance placed on the back of the tongue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To assess cranial nerve XI (spinal accessory nerve), the examiner checks the sternomastoid and trapezius muscles for equal size. Equal strength is assessed by asking the client to rotate the head forcibly against resistance applied to the side of the chin and by asking the client to shrug the shoulders against resistance. These movements should feel equally strong on the two sides. The client is asked to smile as a test of the function of cranial nerve VII (facial nerve). The client's ability to clench the teeth is used to assess the motor function of cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve). The client's taste perception is used to assess the sensory function of cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve). Therefore, the correct action to assess the spinal accessory nerve is to ask the client to shrug the shoulders against resistance. The other options are used to assess different cranial nerves, making them incorrect choices.

4. A client complains that her skin is redder than normal. The nurse notes the client's skin, documents hyperemia, and explains to the client that this condition is caused by which factor?

• A. Constriction of the underlying blood vessels
• B. An increased amount of bilirubin in the blood
• C. Increased perfusion of the surrounding tissues
• D. Excess blood in the dilated superficial capillaries

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hyperemia is an excess of blood in a part of the body. The skin over a hyperemic area usually becomes reddened or warm. The condition is caused by increased blood flow, local relaxation of arterioles, or obstruction of the outflow of blood from an area. Choice A is incorrect because constriction of blood vessels would lead to decreased blood flow, not excess blood. Choice B is incorrect as an increased amount of bilirubin in the blood is related to jaundice, not hyperemia. Choice C is incorrect because increased perfusion of the surrounding tissues would cause redness, not hyperemia.

5. A nurse reviewing a client's record notes that the result of the client's latest Snellen chart vision test was 20/80. The nurse interprets the client's results in which way?

• A. The client is legally blind.
• B. The client has normal vision.
• C. The client can read at a distance of 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet.
• D. The client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When interpreting visual acuity testing results using the Snellen chart, the recorded numeric fraction represents the distance the client is standing from the chart and the distance a normal eye could read that particular line. A reading of 20/80 means that the client can read at 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet. This indicates visual impairment but does not meet the criteria for legal blindness, which is defined as best-corrected vision in the better eye of 20/200 or worse. Normal visual acuity is 20/20. Therefore, the correct interpretation is that the client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet. Choice A is incorrect because 20/80 does not meet the criteria for legal blindness. Choice B is incorrect as the client's vision is impaired. Choice C is incorrect because it reverses the interpretation of the fraction.

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