NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions
1. What classification of drug is Diltiazem?
- A. Calcium-Channel Blocker
- B. NSAID
- C. ACE Inhibitor
- D. Beta-Blocker
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Diltiazem belongs to the class of calcium-channel blockers, not NSAIDs, ACE Inhibitors, or Beta-Blockers. Calcium-channel blockers like Diltiazem are used to treat conditions such as hypertension by relaxing blood vessels and increasing the supply of blood and oxygen to the heart. Therefore, the correct classification for Diltiazem is a Calcium-Channel Blocker. NSAIDs, ACE Inhibitors, and Beta-Blockers belong to different classes of drugs with distinct mechanisms of action and therapeutic uses, making them incorrect choices for Diltiazem.
2. The nurse is observing a client self-administer two crushable medications through their G-tube. Which of the following would indicate a need for further instruction?
- A. The client flushes the G-tube before administering the medications, in between the two medications, and after the medications.
- B. The client states they will remain in the Semi-Fowler's position for 30 minutes following the administration of the medications.
- C. The client mixes each medication separately in warm water.
- D. The client mixes their medications with their tube-feeding formula.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is that the client mixes their medications with their tube-feeding formula. Medications should not be mixed with tube-feeding formula or other medications as it may alter their effectiveness. The G-tube should be flushed before, between, and after the medications to prevent clogging and ensure proper administration. The client should remain in the Semi-Fowler's position for at least 30 minutes after medication administration to prevent reflux. Choice B is correct as it aligns with the proper post-administration positioning. Choices A and C are incorrect as flushing the G-tube before, between, and after medications, and mixing each medication separately in warm water are appropriate procedures that do not indicate a need for further instruction.
3. A community health nurse is providing information to a group of older clients about measures to decrease the risk of contracting influenza during peak flu season. The nurse should provide which information?
- A. Clients must stay at home and ask a neighbor or family member to run their errands.
- B. It is best to do grocery shopping and other errands early in the morning when crowds are smaller.
- C. Clients should wash their hands frequently and keep hands away from the face, especially during peak flu season.
- D. Drinking eight 8-oz glasses of fluid each day will reduce the risk of contracting influenza.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During peak influenza season, older clients should take measures to reduce the risk of contracting the flu. The most effective preventive measure is frequent hand hygiene and refraining from touching the face, as this reduces the transmission of the flu virus. While it is advisable to avoid crowds, the direct action of hand hygiene is more impactful. Doing errands early in the morning when crowds are smaller is a good suggestion to reduce exposure but does not address the direct transmission through hands. Drinking enough fluid daily is important for overall health but does not directly reduce the risk of contracting influenza.
4. A client with an ileus is placed on intestinal tube suction. Which of the following electrolytes is lost with intestinal suction?
- A. calcium
- B. magnesium
- C. potassium
- D. sodium chloride
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is sodium chloride. Duodenal intestinal fluid is rich in potassium (K+), sodium (Na+), and bicarbonate. When suctioning is used to remove excess fluids due to ileus, it results in the loss of sodium chloride (NaCl) leading to decreased sodium (Na+) levels. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because calcium, magnesium, and potassium are not typically lost in significant amounts through intestinal tube suction in the context of treating ileus.
5. What causes an older female client's hair to turn gray?
- A. ''A loss of melanin occurs in the normal aging process.''
- B. ''The number of sweat glands and blood vessels decreases in the normal aging process.''
- C. ''The skin on the scalp becomes thin, causing moisture to escape.''
- D. ''It is caused by hereditary factors.''
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'A loss of melanin occurs in the normal aging process.' Graying hair in older adults is primarily due to a decrease in the number of melanocytes responsible for providing pigment and hair color. This reduction in melanin production leads to gray hair. The other choices are incorrect. While it is true that the skin becomes thinner with aging and the number of sweat glands and blood vessels decreases, these changes are not directly related to graying hair. Additionally, hereditary factors can influence when graying starts, but they do not cause the graying of hair itself.
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