NCLEX NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions
1. What classification of drug is Diltiazem?
- A. Calcium-Channel Blocker
- B. NSAID
- C. ACE Inhibitor
- D. Beta-Blocker
Correct answer: Calcium-Channel Blocker
Rationale: Diltiazem belongs to the class of calcium-channel blockers, not NSAIDs, ACE Inhibitors, or Beta-Blockers. Calcium-channel blockers like Diltiazem are used to treat conditions such as hypertension by relaxing blood vessels and increasing the supply of blood and oxygen to the heart. Therefore, the correct classification for Diltiazem is a Calcium-Channel Blocker. NSAIDs, ACE Inhibitors, and Beta-Blockers belong to different classes of drugs with distinct mechanisms of action and therapeutic uses, making them incorrect choices for Diltiazem.
2. Ashley and her boyfriend Chris, both 19 years old, are transported to the Emergency Department after being involved in a motorcycle accident. Chris is badly hurt, but Ashley has no apparent injuries, though she appears confused and has trouble focusing on what is going on around her. She complains of dizziness and nausea. Her pulse is rapid, and she is hyperventilating. The nurse should assess Ashley’s level of anxiety as:
- A. mild.
- B. moderate.
- C. severe.
- D. panic.
Correct answer: C: severe.
Rationale: Based on the symptoms described, Ashley's level of anxiety should be assessed as severe. In severe anxiety, individuals have difficulty solving problems and understanding their environment. They often exhibit somatic symptoms like dizziness, nausea, rapid pulse, and hyperventilation. In contrast, mild anxiety may lead to mild discomfort or even enhanced performance. Moderate anxiety involves grasping less information, mild difficulty in problem-solving, and slight changes in vital signs. Panic, on the other hand, is characterized by markedly disturbed behavior and a potential loss of touch with reality. Therefore, in Ashley's case, the presence of somatic symptoms and vital sign changes indicates severe anxiety.
3. All of the following are clinical manifestations indicating male climacteric except:
- A. hot flashes
- B. loss of reproductive ability
- C. headaches
- D. heart palpitations
Correct answer: loss of reproductive ability
Rationale: Male climacteric, also known as andropause, is a stage in a man's life characterized by a decline in testosterone levels and various physical and emotional changes. While men may experience symptoms like hot flashes, headaches, and heart palpitations during male climacteric, they do not typically lose their reproductive ability. Although fertility may decrease with age due to reduced testosterone production, men do not entirely lose the ability to reproduce. Therefore, the correct answer is 'loss of reproductive ability.' Choices A, C, and D are symptoms that can be associated with male climacteric, making them incorrect answers.
4. What can the nurse instruct the mother of a teething 9-month-old infant to relieve discomfort?
- A. Rub the infant's gums with baby aspirin dissolved in water.
- B. Obtain an over-the-counter (OTC) topical medication for gum pain relief.
- C. Schedule an appointment with a dentist for a dental evaluation.
- D. Give the infant cool liquids or a Popsicle and hard foods such as dry toast.
Correct answer: Give the infant cool liquids or a Popsicle and hard foods such as dry toast.
Rationale: Teething in infants can cause discomfort, but it is a normal process. Symptoms may include nighttime awakening, daytime restlessness, excess drooling, and temporary loss of appetite. The recommended approach to relieve teething discomfort includes providing cool liquids, a Popsicle, or hard foods like dry toast for chewing. These items can help soothe the infant's gums. Rubbing the gums with baby aspirin dissolved in water is not recommended as it can be harmful. OTC topical medications are unnecessary for teething discomfort. Scheduling a dental evaluation is not required solely for teething. It's important to avoid home remedies like baby aspirin and opt for safer options like cool liquids. If necessary, acetaminophen (Tylenol) can be used under healthcare provider guidance to alleviate discomfort.
5. The LPN is auscultating for bowel sounds and hears between 3 and 4 bowel sounds per minute. This is a somewhat expected finding for which of these clients?
- A. a 63-year-old female undergoing chemotherapy for breast cancer
- B. a 56-year-old female with dementia undergoing a swallow study
- C. a 34-year-old male with a PEG tube newly admitted for diabetic ketoacidosis
- D. a 45-year-old male recovering from a knee replacement under general anesthesia
Correct answer: a 45-year-old male recovering from a knee replacement under general anesthesia
Rationale: When recovering from general anesthesia, hypoactive bowel sounds can be expected due to the effects of the anesthesia on gut motility. For the other clients, hearing less than 5 bowel sounds per minute would indicate an abnormal finding. In the context of the given situation, the client recovering from knee replacement surgery aligns with the expected range of bowel sounds post-general anesthesia. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C present scenarios where hearing less than 5 bowel sounds per minute would be abnormal, indicating potential issues that need further evaluation.
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