NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions
1. What classification of drug is Diltiazem?
- A. Calcium-Channel Blocker
- B. NSAID
- C. ACE Inhibitor
- D. Beta-Blocker
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Diltiazem belongs to the class of calcium-channel blockers, not NSAIDs, ACE Inhibitors, or Beta-Blockers. Calcium-channel blockers like Diltiazem are used to treat conditions such as hypertension by relaxing blood vessels and increasing the supply of blood and oxygen to the heart. Therefore, the correct classification for Diltiazem is a Calcium-Channel Blocker. NSAIDs, ACE Inhibitors, and Beta-Blockers belong to different classes of drugs with distinct mechanisms of action and therapeutic uses, making them incorrect choices for Diltiazem.
2. While performing a physical assessment on a 6-month-old infant, the nurse observes head lag. Which of the following nursing actions should the nurse perform first?
- A. Ask the parents to allow the infant to lie on his stomach to promote muscle development.
- B. Notify the physician because a developmental or neurological evaluation is indicated.
- C. Document the findings as abnormal in the nurse's notes.
- D. Explain to the parents that their child is likely to have developmental delays.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Head lag should be completely resolved by 4 months of age. Continuing head lag at 6 months of age indicates the need for further developmental or neurological evaluation. Laying the infant on his stomach promotes muscle development of the neck and shoulder muscles, but because of the age of this child, a referral should be the first action. The findings are abnormal for a 6-month-old infant. Significant head lag can be seen in infants with Down syndrome and hypoxia, as well as neurological and other metabolic disorders. While some of these disorders might include developmental delays, stating this to the parents without a proper evaluation can cause unnecessary distress. The priority is to identify the cause of the head lag through a medical evaluation before discussing potential outcomes with the parents.
3. A client with Kawasaki disease has bilateral congestion of the conjunctivae, dry cracked lips, a strawberry tongue, and edema of the hands and feet followed by desquamation of fingers and toes. Which of the following nursing measures is most appropriate to meet the expected outcome of positive body image?
- A. administering immune globulin intravenously
- B. assessing the extremities for edema, redness, and desquamation every 8 hours
- C. explaining progression of the disease to the client and their family
- D. assessing heart sounds and rhythm
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Educating the client and their family about the progression of Kawasaki disease is crucial for promoting a positive body image. By explaining when symptoms are expected to improve and resolve, the client and family can better understand that there will be no permanent disruption in physical appearance that could negatively impact body image. Administering immune globulin intravenously is a treatment for Kawasaki disease but does not directly address body image concerns. Assessing the extremities for edema, redness, and desquamation every 8 hours is important for monitoring the disease but does not directly address body image concerns. Assessing heart sounds and rhythm is essential for evaluating cardiac effects of Kawasaki disease but is not the most direct measure for promoting a positive body image.
4. The nurse has a client who is being transferred to another floor right around change of shift. Which of the following actions is least appropriate?
- A. Inform the staff on the other floor of any unresolved issues with the client.
- B. Ask the charge nurse if overtime would be permitted to complete the client's transfer to the other floor.
- C. Ask the new nurse to take care of the transfer since the client's medical record has all of the information, and a report should not be needed.
- D. Complete the transfer paperwork before the client is transferred.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The least appropriate action in this scenario is to ask the new nurse to take care of the transfer without providing a full handoff of care. It is crucial to ensure a safe handoff during the transfer to maintain continuity of care and patient safety. Informing the staff on the other floor of any unresolved issues with the client (Choice A) is important for the client's well-being as it helps in providing comprehensive care. Asking the charge nurse about overtime (Choice B) demonstrates consideration for completing the task effectively, but it should not take precedence over ensuring a proper handoff. Completing the transfer paperwork before the client is transferred (Choice D) is necessary to ensure all documentation is in order, but it should be done in conjunction with providing a thorough handoff of care to the new nurse.
5. The nurse notes that a client in later adulthood has tremors of the hands. Based on this finding, what action should the nurse take?
- A. Ask the healthcare provider about referring the client to a neurological specialist.
- B. Obtain a prescription for a muscle relaxant.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
- D. Document the findings.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a nurse observes senile tremors, such as intentional tremor of the hands in a client in later adulthood, it is important to document the findings. Senile tremors are benign and a normal age-related occurrence. Referring the client to a neurological specialist (Choice A) is unnecessary as senile tremors do not require specialized neurological intervention. Prescribing a muscle relaxant (Choice B) is not indicated since senile tremors are benign and not typically treated with muscle relaxants. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice C) is unnecessary as senile tremors do not require urgent intervention. Therefore, the most appropriate action is to document the findings (Choice D) for the client's medical record and to establish a baseline for future assessments.
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