Nursing Elites

1. An older client reports that she has been awakening during the night, awakes early in the morning and is unable to fall back to sleep, and feels sleepy during the daytime. Based on these reported data, what should the nurse do?

• A. Encourage the client to consume stimulants such as caffeinated coffee or tea during the daytime hours.
• B. Ask the registered nurse to obtain a prescription for a nighttime sedative.
• C. Report the findings to the registered nurse.
• D. Document the findings in the medical record.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Age-related changes in sleep include reduced sleep efficiency, increased incidence of nocturnal awakening, increased incidence of early-morning awakening, and increased daytime sleepiness. Since the reported data are normal age-related changes, the appropriate action for the nurse would be to document the findings in the medical record. Reporting the findings to the registered nurse is unnecessary as these changes are expected with aging and do not indicate a need for immediate intervention. Prescribing sedatives should be avoided as a first-line approach due to potential side effects and risks, especially in older adults. Encouraging the consumption of stimulants like caffeinated beverages during the daytime may further disrupt sleep patterns, which is counterproductive in addressing the client's reported sleep issues.

2. The LPN is admitting a client to the unit, and the client has rapidly blinking eyes, a stuck-out tongue, and a distorted posture. Which of these medications is the client most likely taking?

• A. Clozapine
• B. Fluoxetine
• C. Ondansetron
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors and is most likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as tardive dyskinesia. Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia include rapid blinking, mouth movements, sticking out the tongue, rapid body movements, and a distorted posture. Haloperidol is associated with a higher risk of EPS compared to other antipsychotic medications like Clozapine. Clozapine is known for having a lower risk of causing EPS. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, not typically associated with these movement disorder symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, not linked to these extrapyramidal symptoms.

3. A nurse is reviewing the findings of a physical examination documented in a client's record. Which piece of information does the nurse recognize as objective data?

• A. The client is allergic to strawberries
• B. The last menstrual period was 30 days ago
• C. The client takes acetaminophen (Tylenol) for headaches
• D. A 1-2-inch scar is present on the lower right portion of the abdomen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Objective data in a physical examination are findings that the healthcare provider observes or measures directly. In this case, a 1 � 2-inch scar present on the lower right portion of the abdomen is a physical observation. Subjective data are based on what the client reports, such as allergies (Choice A), the date of the last menstrual period (Choice B), and self-reported medication use for headaches (Choice C). While these pieces of information are important for assessing the client's health, they are considered subjective data because they rely on the client's self-report rather than direct observation by the healthcare provider.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the health care record of a client who has just undergone an examination of the internal genitalia. Which documented finding indicates an abnormality?

• A. The cervix is pink.
• B. The cervix is midline.
• C. The cervix is about 1 inch in diameter.
• D. Clear secretions with a foul odor are noted on the cervix.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Clear secretions with a foul odor are noted on the cervix.' Normally, the cervix is pink, midline, and about 1 inch in diameter. Depending on the day of the menstrual cycle, secretions may vary. However, they should always be odorless and nonirritating. Secretions with a foul odor are indicative of an infection, making this finding abnormal. Choices A, B, and C describe normal cervix characteristics, so they do not indicate an abnormality in this scenario.

5. While reviewing a client's health care record, a nurse notes documentation of the presence of borborygmus on abdominal assessment. Which finding does the nurse expect to note when auscultating the client's bowel sounds?

• A. Hypoactive bowel sounds
• B. Low-pitched bowel sounds
• C. Hyperactive bowel sounds
• D. An absence of bowel sounds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Borborygmus, a type of hyperactive bowel sound, is fairly common. It indicates hyperperistalsis, and the client may describe it as a growling stomach. Hyperactive bowel sounds are loud, high-pitched, and rushing sounds. Hypoactive bowel sounds are low-pitched and may occur post-surgery or with peritoneal inflammation. Low-pitched bowel sounds are not typically associated with borborygmus. An absence of bowel sounds indicates a potentially serious issue like an ileus, where bowel motility is decreased or absent.

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