Nursing Elites

1. A female client is seen in the clinic for a gynecological examination. The nurse begins collecting subjective data. Which topic does the nurse ask the client about first?

• A. Her sexual history
• B. Her menstrual history
• C. Her obstetrical history
• D. The presence of vaginal drainage

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should begin by asking the client about her menstrual history as it is usually nonthreatening. This information can provide insights into the client's reproductive health and any irregularities. Menstrual history is a common starting point for gynecological assessments and can help in understanding the client's overall health status. Asking about sexual history may be more sensitive and personal, not always appropriate to start with. Obstetrical history pertains to pregnancies and may not be relevant if the client has not been pregnant. Inquiring about the presence of vaginal drainage is important but is usually addressed after gathering more general information about the client's health.

2. Which of the following physical findings indicates that an 11-12-month-old child is at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip?

• A. refusal to walk
• B. not pulling to a standing position
• C. negative Trendelenburg sign
• D. negative Ortolani sign

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'not pulling to a standing position.' An 11-12-month-old child not pulling to a standing position may be at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip. By this age, children typically pull to a standing position, and failure to do so should raise concerns. Refusal to walk is a broader observation and not specific to hip dysplasia. The Trendelenburg sign indicates weakness of the gluteus medius muscle, not hip dysplasia. The Ortolani sign is used to detect congenital subluxation or dislocation of the hip, which is different from developmental dysplasia of the hip.

3. The LPN is taking care of a client with a documented allergy to Penicillin. After rounds, the LPN notices that the client has an order for Cefazolin. Which of the following actions would be the least appropriate?

• A. The LPN clarifies the severity of the Penicillin allergy.
• B. The LPN discusses the order with the care team prior to administering Cefazolin.
• C. The LPN administers all ordered medications except for the Cefazolin.
• D. The LPN monitors the client after a test dose of Cefazolin is administered.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The least appropriate action is for the LPN to administer all ordered medications except for the Cefazolin. The LPN should always consider the client's documented allergy to Penicillin seriously. It is crucial to discuss the order with the care team before administering Cefazolin to ensure patient safety. Administering a medication that could potentially cause harm due to a documented allergy is unsafe practice. While monitoring the client after a test dose of Cefazolin is important, it should not precede clarification with the care team regarding the allergy and the appropriateness of the medication. Therefore, withholding the Cefazolin is the most appropriate action in this scenario.

4. A nurse is preparing to assist the healthcare provider in performing an internal gynecological examination of a client. In which position does the nurse place the client for this examination?

• A. Prone
• B. Left side-lying
• C. Sims
• D. Lithotomy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An internal gynecological examination is performed with the client in the lithotomy position. In this position, the client is supine, with the feet in stirrups, the knees apart, and the buttocks at the end of the examining table. The client is draped so that only the vulva is exposed. The lithotomy position provides optimal access for the healthcare provider to perform the examination effectively. The prone position refers to lying on the stomach, which is not suitable for a gynecological exam. The Sims position is a left side-lying position primarily used for administering enemas, not for gynecological examinations.

5. A client is taught about healthy dietary measures and the MyPlate food plan. How many of his grains should be whole grains according to the MyPlate food plan?

• A. One-quarter
• B. One-third
• C. One-half
• D. Two-thirds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'One-half.' According to the MyPlate food plan, at least half of the grains consumed daily should be whole grains. This ensures a well-balanced and healthy diet. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the dietary recommendation provided by the MyPlate food plan. One-quarter, one-third, and two-thirds do not represent the appropriate proportion of whole grains as advised by the plan, which emphasizes the importance of including a significant portion of whole grains in one's diet.

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