Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is caring for a patient who has experienced burns to the right lower extremity. According to the Rule of Nines, which of the following percentages most accurately describes the severity of the injury?

• A. 36%
• B. 27%
• C. 18%
• D. 9%

Correct answer: C

Rationale: According to the Rule of Nines, the right lower extremity accounts for 18% of the total body surface area. The Rule of Nines divides the body into regions, each representing 9% or a multiple of 9%, allowing for a quick estimation of the extent of burns. In this case, the correct answer is 18% as it corresponds to the percentage allocated for each lower extremity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not match the standard allocation for the right lower extremity in the Rule of Nines.

2. On morning rounds, the nurse finds a somnolent client with a Blood glucose of 89 mg/dL. A sulfonurea and a proton pump inhibitor are scheduled to be administered. What is the nurse's best action?

• A. Give the proton pump inhibitor and hold the sulfonurea until the client eats
• B. Hold medications and notify the physician
• C. Arouse the client and give some orange juice with sugar packets added
• D. Give the medications as ordered and re-check blood sugar in one hour

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action is to give the proton pump inhibitor and hold the sulfonurea until the client eats. Sulfonureas should be held for blood glucose levels below 100 mg/dL until the client has food to prevent hypoglycemia. Giving the proton pump inhibitor is appropriate and does not need to be delayed. Option B is incorrect because holding both medications without taking appropriate action may lead to further complications. Option C is not the best choice as it does not address the need to hold the sulfonurea until the client eats. Option D is incorrect because administering the medications without ensuring the client eats may lead to hypoglycemia.

3. When assessing a client with early impairment of oxygen perfusion, such as a pulmonary embolus, the nurse should expect to find restlessness and which of the following symptoms?

• A. cool, clammy skin
• B. bradycardia
• C. tachycardia
• D. eupnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client has early impairment of oxygen perfusion, such as in a pulmonary embolus, the nurse should expect to find restlessness, diaphoresis, tachycardia, and cool skin. Tachycardia is a compensatory mechanism to increase oxygen delivery to tissues. Cool, clammy skin (choice A) is more indicative of impaired oxygen perfusion compared to warm, dry skin. Bradycardia (choice B) is less likely to occur in the early stages and is more common in severe cases. Eupnea (choice D) refers to normal respirations in rate and depth, which may not be altered in early impairment of oxygen perfusion.

4. A nurse is teaching a client newly diagnosed with Emphysema about the disease process. Which of the following statements best explains the problems associated with emphysema and could be adapted for use in the nurse's discussion with the client?

• A. Hyperactivity of the medium-sized bronchi caused by an inflammatory response leads to wheezing and tightness in the chest.
• B. Larger than normal air spaces and loss of elastic recoil cause air to be trapped in the lung and collapse airways.
• C. Vasodilation, congestion, and mucosal edema cause a chronic cough and sputum production.
• D. Chloride is not being transported properly, producing excess absorption of water and sodium, and thick viscous mucus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is: 'Larger than normal air spaces and loss of elastic recoil cause air to be trapped in the lung and collapse airways.' Emphysema is a breakdown of the elastin and fiber network of the alveoli where the alveoli enlarge or the walls are destroyed. This alveolar destruction leads to the formation of larger-than-normal air spaces. Emphysema is one of a group of pulmonary diseases of a chronic nature characterized by increased resistance to airflow; the entity is part of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Choice A is incorrect because emphysema is not primarily characterized by hyperactivity of the medium-sized bronchi causing wheezing and tightness in the chest. Choice C is incorrect because vasodilation, congestion, and mucosal edema are not the primary mechanisms involved in emphysema, and they do not directly lead to chronic cough and sputum production. Choice D is incorrect because emphysema is not related to chloride transport issues and thick viscous mucus production.

5. Nurses should understand the chain of infection because it refers to:

• A. the linkages involved in disease transmission.
• B. the sequence required for transmission of disease.
• C. the clustering of bacteria in a specific pattern.
• D. increasing virulence patterns among microorganisms.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The chain of infection refers to the sequence required for the transmission of disease, involving steps like the pathogen's presence, movement from a reservoir, and entry into a susceptible host. Understanding this sequence helps healthcare professionals, including nurses, in implementing effective infection control measures. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the concept of the chain of infection. Choice A is too broad and does not specifically address the sequential nature of disease transmission. Choice C focuses on bacterial clustering rather than the transmission process. Choice D mentions virulence patterns, which are not the primary focus of the chain of infection concept.

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