Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is caring for a patient who has experienced burns to the right lower extremity. According to the Rule of Nines, which of the following percentages most accurately describes the severity of the injury?

• A. 36%
• B. 27%
• C. 18%
• D. 9%

Correct answer: C

Rationale: According to the Rule of Nines, the right lower extremity accounts for 18% of the total body surface area. The Rule of Nines divides the body into regions, each representing 9% or a multiple of 9%, allowing for a quick estimation of the extent of burns. In this case, the correct answer is 18% as it corresponds to the percentage allocated for each lower extremity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not match the standard allocation for the right lower extremity in the Rule of Nines.

2. After experiencing a left frontal lobe CVA, a fifty-five-year-old man is being monitored by a nurse. The patient's family is not present in the room. What should the nurse observe most closely for?

• A. Changes in emotion and behavior
• B. Monitor loss of hearing
• C. Observe appetite and vision deficits
• D. Changes in facial muscle control

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to watch for changes in emotion and behavior. The frontal lobe, particularly the left side, is responsible for regulating behavior and emotions. Therefore, following a left frontal lobe CVA, monitoring for alterations in emotion and behavior is crucial. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because loss of hearing, appetite and vision deficits, and changes in facial muscle control are not directly associated with a left frontal lobe CVA.

3. A 32-year-old male with a complaint of dizziness has an order for Morphine via IV. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Check the patient's chest x-ray results.
• B. Retake vitals including blood pressure.
• C. Perform a neurological screening on the patient.
• D. Request the physician on-call to assess the patient.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take in this situation is to retake the patient's vitals, including blood pressure. Dizziness can be a sign of hypotension, which may be a contraindication for administering Morphine. Checking the chest x-ray results (Choice A) would not be the priority in this case as addressing the dizziness is more urgent. Performing a neurological screening (Choice C) may be important but not the first step when a patient presents with dizziness and an order for Morphine. Requesting the physician to assess the patient (Choice D) should come after the initial assessment and vitals retake.

4. A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) following an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?

• A. increased platelet count
• B. increased fibrinogen
• C. decreased fibrin split products
• D. decreased bleeding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the context of DIC, effective Heparin therapy aims to halt the process of intravascular coagulation. One of the indicators of a positive response to Heparin therapy is an increase in fibrinogen levels. Heparin interferes with the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin. This interruption helps increase the availability of fibrinogen. While the platelet count may increase due to improved clotting, the primary focus of Heparin therapy is on fibrinogen. Fibrin split products are expected to decrease as the coagulation cascade is controlled. Although decreased bleeding is an ultimate goal, the immediate effect of Heparin is not directly on bleeding but on the coagulation process.

5. Which of the following should not be included in the teaching for clients who take oral iron preparations?

• A. Mix the liquid iron preparation with antacids to reduce GI distress.
• B. Take the iron with meals if GI distress occurs.
• C. Liquid forms should be taken with a straw to avoid discoloration of tooth enamel.
• D. Oral forms should be taken with juice, not milk.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to mix the liquid iron preparation with antacids to reduce GI distress. This statement is incorrect because iron should not be mixed with antacids as it can significantly reduce the absorption of iron. Choice B is a good recommendation as taking iron with meals can help reduce gastrointestinal distress. Choice C is also correct as liquid forms of iron should be taken with a straw to prevent the discoloration of tooth enamel. Choice D is incorrect as iron preparations can be taken with juice or water, but not with milk, as calcium in milk can inhibit iron absorption.

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