Nursing Elites

1. A patient has recently been prescribed Zidovudine (Retrovir). The patient has AIDS. Which of the following side effects should the patient specifically watch out for?

• A. Weakness and SOB
• B. Fever and anemia
• C. Hypertension and SOB
• D. Fever and hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fever and anemia.' Zidovudine (Retrovir) is known to cause anemia as a side effect due to its impact on the bone marrow. Fever is also a common side effect associated with Zidovudine use. Therefore, the patient should watch out for these specific side effects. Choice A (Weakness and SOB) is incorrect as shortness of breath (SOB) is not a commonly reported side effect of Zidovudine. Choice C (Hypertension and SOB) and Choice D (Fever and hypertension) are unrelated to the known side effects of Zidovudine, making them incorrect.

2. The client is cared for by a nurse and calls for the nurse to come to the room, expressing feeling unwell. The client's vital signs are BP: 130/88, HR: 102, RR: 28. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Administer PRN anxiolytic
• B. Administer Antibiotics
• C. Reassure the client that everything is okay and offer food and beverage
• D. Determine the Glasgow Coma Scale

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! The client's vital signs indicate tachycardia and tachypnea, which could be indicative of hypoxia. Administering a PRN anxiolytic would not address the underlying issue and could mask deterioration. Reassuring the client without further assessment or intervention could lead to a delay in appropriate care if there is a serious underlying cause for the symptoms. Determining the Glasgow Coma Scale is not relevant to the client's presenting symptoms of feeling unwell and suspecting something is wrong, coupled with abnormal vital signs.

3. The client is scheduled for surgical repair of a detached retina. What is the most likely preoperative nursing diagnosis for this client?

• A. Anxiety related to loss of vision and potential failure to regain vision.
• B. Deficient knowledge (preoperative and postoperative activities) related to lack of information.
• C. Acute pain related to tissue injury and decreased circulation to the eye.
• D. Risk for infection related to the eye injury.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct preoperative nursing diagnosis for a client scheduled for surgical repair of a detached retina is 'Anxiety related to loss of vision and potential failure to regain vision.' A client facing the threat of permanent blindness due to a detached retina is likely to experience anxiety. Addressing this anxiety is crucial before providing education, as severe anxiety can hinder the client's ability to absorb new information. The nurse should offer emotional support, encourage the client to express concerns, and clarify any misconceptions. Acute pain is not a typical symptom of a detached retina, and the risk of infection preoperatively is minimal, making choices C and D less relevant in this scenario.

4. A client is experiencing chest pain. Which statement made by the client indicates angina rather than a myocardial infarction?

• A. "I became dizzy when I stood up."?
• B. "I was nauseated and began vomiting."?
• C. "The pain started in my chest and stopped after I sat down."?
• D. "The pain began with a migraine and progressed to numbness in my left arm."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is: '"The pain started in my chest and stopped after I sat down."? This statement suggests angina rather than a myocardial infarction because angina is typically triggered by exertion or stress and relieved by rest. Nausea and vomiting (Choice B) are more commonly associated with a myocardial infarction. Choices A and D are not typical symptoms of either angina or myocardial infarction.

5. When assessing a client with early impairment of oxygen perfusion, such as a pulmonary embolus, the nurse should expect to find restlessness and which of the following symptoms?

• A. cool, clammy skin
• B. bradycardia
• C. tachycardia
• D. eupnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client has early impairment of oxygen perfusion, such as in a pulmonary embolus, the nurse should expect to find restlessness, diaphoresis, tachycardia, and cool skin. Tachycardia is a compensatory mechanism to increase oxygen delivery to tissues. Cool, clammy skin (choice A) is more indicative of impaired oxygen perfusion compared to warm, dry skin. Bradycardia (choice B) is less likely to occur in the early stages and is more common in severe cases. Eupnea (choice D) refers to normal respirations in rate and depth, which may not be altered in early impairment of oxygen perfusion.

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