clomiphene is prescribed for a female client to treat infertility the nurse is providing information to the client and her spouse about the medication
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

NCLEX PN Exam Cram

1. Clomiphene is prescribed for a female client to treat infertility. The nurse is providing information to the client and her spouse about the medication and provides the couple with which information?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that multiple births (usually twins) occur in a small percentage (8% - 10%) of clomiphene-facilitated pregnancies. The couple should be informed about this potential outcome. Clomiphene is available in 50-mg tablets for oral use; there is no intravenous form of the medication. Breast engorgement is a common side effect of clomiphene that typically resolves after discontinuation of the medication. Ovulation usually happens 5 to 10 days after the last dose of clomiphene, and the couple is advised to engage in coitus at least every other day during this time. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not provide accurate information regarding clomiphene treatment for infertility.

2. A client admitted with an episode of bleeding esophageal varices is receiving propranolol (Inderal LA). The nurse knows to monitor for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Bradycardia.' Propranolol is a beta-blocking agent used to decrease the heart rate. In the case of bleeding esophageal varices, propranolol is given to reduce the risk of bleeding by keeping the heart rate around 55 beats per minute. Monitoring for bradycardia is essential as the medication's intended effect is to lower the heart rate. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because propranolol would not typically cause hypertension, hyperkalemia, or arthralgia.

3. The client is cared for by a nurse and calls for the nurse to come to the room, expressing feeling unwell. The client's vital signs are BP: 130/88, HR: 102, RR: 28. What should the nurse do next?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! The client's vital signs indicate tachycardia and tachypnea, which could be indicative of hypoxia. Administering a PRN anxiolytic would not address the underlying issue and could mask deterioration. Reassuring the client without further assessment or intervention could lead to a delay in appropriate care if there is a serious underlying cause for the symptoms. Determining the Glasgow Coma Scale is not relevant to the client's presenting symptoms of feeling unwell and suspecting something is wrong, coupled with abnormal vital signs.

4. Which dietary consideration is most important for the nurse to teach to a client with hypothyroidism?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Increase fiber.' In hypothyroidism, clients often experience constipation due to decreased metabolic rate. Increasing fiber in the diet can help alleviate constipation. Choice A, 'Increase carbohydrate intake,' is incorrect as there is no specific need to increase carbohydrate intake in hypothyroidism. Choice B, 'Increase fluid intake,' is not directly related to managing hypothyroidism, although adequate hydration is generally important for overall health. Choice C, 'Avoid shellfish,' is commonly associated with hyperthyroidism due to its iodine content, not hypothyroidism.

5. Which of the following is not typically considered one of the main mechanisms of Type II Diabetes treatment?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Continuous Insulin is not typically considered one of the main mechanisms for treating Type II Diabetes. While medications, nutrition, and increased activity play crucial roles in managing Type II Diabetes, continuous insulin therapy is more common in Type I Diabetes or in specific cases of Type II Diabetes where other treatments are ineffective. Therefore, the correct answer is Continuous Insulin. Choices A, B, and C are mainstays in the treatment of Type II Diabetes, making them incorrect answers.

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