NCLEX-PN
NCLEX-PN Quizlet 2023
1. How can the nurse promote relief of muscle pain, spasms, and tension?
- A. Encouraging the client to continue their activities as usual.
- B. Immobilizing the client.
- C. Applying heat, cold, pressure, or vibration to the painful area.
- D. Administering pain medication as needed to ease the muscle.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To promote relief of muscle pain, spasms, and tension, the nurse should consider applying heat, cold, pressure, or vibration to the painful area. These interventions can help alleviate pain associated with muscle tension, pain, or spasms. Choice A is incorrect because encouraging the client to continue their activities as usual may exacerbate the pain. Choice B is incorrect as immobilizing the client may not address the underlying issue and could potentially lead to further complications. Choice D is also incorrect because while pain medication can be used, it is not the first-line treatment for muscle pain, spasms, and tension.
2. Chemotherapeutic agents often produce a degree of myelosuppression including leukopenia. Leukopenia does not present immediately but is delayed several days or weeks because:
- A. the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit are normal.
- B. red blood cells are affected first.
- C. folic acid levels are normal.
- D. the current white cell count is not affected by chemotherapy.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Leukopenia does not present immediately after chemotherapy because time is required to clear circulating cells before the effect on precursor cell maturation in the bone marrow becomes evident. Leukopenia is characterized by an abnormally low white blood cell count. The correct answer is D because the white cell count is not immediately affected by chemotherapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they pertain to red blood cells (hemoglobin and hematocrit), which are not directly related to the delayed onset of leukopenia.
3. Clomiphene is prescribed for a female client to treat infertility. The nurse is providing information to the client and her spouse about the medication and provides the couple with which information?
- A. If the oral tablets are not successful, the medication will be administered intravenously.
- B. The couple should engage in coitus at least every other day during treatment.
- C. The physician should be notified immediately if breast engorgement occurs.
- D. Multiple births occur in a small percentage of clomiphene-facilitated pregnancies.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is that multiple births (usually twins) occur in a small percentage (8% - 10%) of clomiphene-facilitated pregnancies. The couple should be informed about this potential outcome. Clomiphene is available in 50-mg tablets for oral use; there is no intravenous form of the medication. Breast engorgement is a common side effect of clomiphene that typically resolves after discontinuation of the medication. Ovulation usually happens 5 to 10 days after the last dose of clomiphene, and the couple is advised to engage in coitus at least every other day during this time. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not provide accurate information regarding clomiphene treatment for infertility.
4. In hanging a parenteral IV fluid that is to be infused by gravity, rather than with an infusion pump, the nurse notes that the IV tubing is available in different drop factors. Which tubing is a microdrop set?
- A. 15 drops per milliliter
- B. 60 drops per milliliter
- C. 20 drops per milliliter
- D. 10 drops per milliliter
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A microdrop set delivers 60 drops per milliliter of IV fluid. This allows for a more precise control of the infusion rate. The correct choice is B because it provides the desired microdrop rate. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A delivers 15 drops per milliliter, which is a macrodrop set. C delivers 20 drops per milliliter, also a macrodrop set. D delivers 10 drops per milliliter, another macrodrop set. Therefore, the correct choice for a microdrop set is B.
5. A patient has recently been prescribed Norvasc. Which of the following side effects should the patient specifically watch out for?
- A. Hypotension and Angina
- B. Hypertension
- C. Lower extremity edema
- D. Peripheral sensory loss and SOB
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypotension and Angina.' Norvasc is a medication known to cause hypotension (low blood pressure) and angina (chest pain) as side effects. These side effects are important for the patient to watch out for as they can indicate potential issues related to the medication. Choice B ('Hypertension') is incorrect as Norvasc is actually used to treat hypertension, not cause it. Choice C ('Lower extremity edema') is not a common side effect of Norvasc. Choice D ('Peripheral sensory loss and SOB') is not typically associated with Norvasc's side effects.
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