NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Exam Cram
1. A client who has a known history of cardiac problems and is still smoking enters the clinic complaining of sudden onset of sharp, stabbing pain that intensifies with a deep breath. The pain is occurring on only one side and can be isolated upon general assessment. The nurse concludes that this description is most likely caused by:
- A. pleurisy.
- B. pleural effusion.
- C. atelectasis.
- D. tuberculosis.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pleurisy is an inflammation of the pleura and is often accompanied by an abrupt onset of pain. Symptoms of pleurisy include sudden sharp, stabbing pain that is usually unilateral and localized to a specific portion of the chest. The pain can be exacerbated by deep breathing. In contrast, pleural effusion is characterized by fluid accumulation in the pleural space, not sharp pain. Atelectasis involves collapse or closure of a lung leading to reduced gas exchange, but it does not typically present with sharp, stabbing pain. Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can affect the lungs but does not typically manifest with sudden sharp pain exacerbated by deep breathing.
2. A nurse is assigned to do pre-operative teaching on a blind patient who is scheduled for surgery the following morning. What teaching strategy would best fit the situation?
- A. Verbal teaching in short sessions throughout the day
- B. Provide a pre-operative booklet in Braille
- C. Provide an audio recording for the client
- D. Have the blind patient's family member assist with the instruction
Correct answer: A
Rationale: For a blind patient scheduled for surgery the following morning, the best teaching strategy would be verbal teaching in short sessions throughout the day. Providing information in smaller amounts makes it easier to retain, and one-on-one teaching is most effective. Choice B, providing a pre-operative booklet in Braille, may not be as practical for last-minute teaching. Choice C, providing an audio recording, may not allow for immediate interaction and clarification. Choice D, having a family member instruct the patient, may not ensure the accuracy and clarity of the information provided.
3. Which of the following injuries, if demonstrated by a client entering the Emergency Department, is the highest priority?
- A. open leg fracture
- B. open head injury
- C. stab wound to the chest
- D. traumatic amputation of a thumb
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A stab wound to the chest might result in lung collapse and mediastinal shift that, if untreated, could lead to death. Treatment of an obstructed airway or a chest wound is a higher priority than hemorrhage. The principle of ABC (airway, breathing, and circulation) prioritizes care decisions. In this scenario, the stab wound to the chest poses the highest risk to the client's life as it can lead to severe complications such as lung collapse and mediastinal shift. Addressing this injury promptly is crucial to prevent further harm or potential fatality. Open leg fracture, open head injury, and traumatic amputation of a thumb, while serious, do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to a stab wound to the chest.
4. When assessing a client with early impairment of oxygen perfusion, such as a pulmonary embolus, the nurse should expect to find restlessness and which of the following symptoms?
- A. cool, clammy skin
- B. bradycardia
- C. tachycardia
- D. eupnea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client has early impairment of oxygen perfusion, such as in a pulmonary embolus, the nurse should expect to find restlessness, diaphoresis, tachycardia, and cool skin. Tachycardia is a compensatory mechanism to increase oxygen delivery to tissues. Cool, clammy skin (choice A) is more indicative of impaired oxygen perfusion compared to warm, dry skin. Bradycardia (choice B) is less likely to occur in the early stages and is more common in severe cases. Eupnea (choice D) refers to normal respirations in rate and depth, which may not be altered in early impairment of oxygen perfusion.
5. The nurse has just received a change-of-shift report. Which client should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client 2 hours post-lobectomy with 150cc drainage
- B. A client 2 days post-gastrectomy with scant drainage
- C. A client with pneumonia with an oral temperature of 102°F
- D. A client with a fractured hip in Buck's traction
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should assess the client 2 hours post-lobectomy with 150cc drainage first because postoperative assessments are crucial during the immediate postoperative period. This client may be at higher risk for complications, such as bleeding or infection, requiring immediate attention. Clients in choices B, C, and D are relatively stable and can be assessed after the immediate postoperative client has been evaluated.
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