NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Exam Cram
1. A client who has a known history of cardiac problems and is still smoking enters the clinic complaining of sudden onset of sharp, stabbing pain that intensifies with a deep breath. The pain is occurring on only one side and can be isolated upon general assessment. The nurse concludes that this description is most likely caused by:
- A. pleurisy.
- B. pleural effusion.
- C. atelectasis.
- D. tuberculosis.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pleurisy is an inflammation of the pleura and is often accompanied by an abrupt onset of pain. Symptoms of pleurisy include sudden sharp, stabbing pain that is usually unilateral and localized to a specific portion of the chest. The pain can be exacerbated by deep breathing. In contrast, pleural effusion is characterized by fluid accumulation in the pleural space, not sharp pain. Atelectasis involves collapse or closure of a lung leading to reduced gas exchange, but it does not typically present with sharp, stabbing pain. Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can affect the lungs but does not typically manifest with sudden sharp pain exacerbated by deep breathing.
2. For a client with suspected appendicitis, where should the nurse expect to find abdominal tenderness?
- A. upper right
- B. upper left
- C. lower right
- D. lower left
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: lower right. Abdominal tenderness in the lower-right quadrant is a classic symptom of appendicitis. This tenderness is known as McBurney's point, which is located in the lower-right quadrant of the abdomen. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the tenderness associated with appendicitis is typically localized to the lower-right quadrant.
3. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease arrives in the emergency department complaining of weakness and states that he vomited 'a lot of dark coffee-looking stomach contents.' The client is cool and moist to the touch. BP 90/50, HR 110, RR 20, T 98. Of the following physician orders, which will the nurse perform first?
- A. Initiate oxygen at 2 liters/nasal cannula.
- B. Start an IV of NS at 150 ml/hr
- C. Insert NG tube to low suction
- D. Attach the client to the ECG monitor
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to initiate oxygen at 2 liters/nasal cannula. The client is presenting signs of shock with hypotension, tachycardia, and cool, moist skin, which indicate poor tissue perfusion. Oxygen should be administered first to improve tissue oxygenation. While all interventions are important, oxygenation takes priority in the ABCs of emergency care. Starting an IV of NS, inserting an NG tube, and attaching the client to the ECG monitor are necessary interventions but should follow the priority of oxygen administration in this scenario.
4. Which behavior by a new nurse would indicate to the charge nurse that this nurse is following standard precautions?
- A. Wearing clean gloves while performing a heel stick on an infant
- B. Wearing the same gloves for assessments of clients in the same room
- C. Wearing sterile gloves when changing the urine bag and nasogastric canister of an infected client
- D. Donning a gown when responding to a request by the family to check the IV pump on a client with rotavirus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is wearing clean gloves while performing a heel stick on an infant. Standard precautions require the use of gloves when there is a risk of exposure to blood or body fluids. Clean gloves are suitable for this task as they provide adequate protection without being sterile. Choice B is incorrect because wearing the same gloves for different clients can lead to cross-contamination, violating standard precautions. Choice C is incorrect as sterile gloves are usually not required for changing a urine bag and nasogastric canister unless a specific aseptic technique is indicated; standard precautions do not demand sterile gloves for such tasks. Choice D is incorrect as donning a gown is not necessary for checking an IV pump unless there is a risk of exposure to bodily fluids that would necessitate full-body protection, which is not indicated in this scenario.
5. A client is complaining of difficulty walking secondary to a mass in the foot. The nurse should document this finding as:
- A. Plantar fasciitis.
- B. Hallux valgus.
- C. Hammertoe.
- D. Morton's neuroma.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Morton's neuroma. Morton's neuroma is a small mass or tumor in a digital nerve of the foot, causing pain and difficulty walking. Hallux valgus is commonly known as a bunion, involving a bony bump at the base of the big toe. Hammertoe is a condition where one toe is bent abnormally at the middle joint, resembling a hammer. Plantar fasciitis is characterized by pain and inflammation in the arch of the foot, not by a mass causing difficulty walking. Therefore, options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not describe a mass in the foot leading to difficulty walking, unlike Morton's neuroma.
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