Nursing Elites

1. A client who has a known history of cardiac problems and is still smoking enters the clinic complaining of sudden onset of sharp, stabbing pain that intensifies with a deep breath. The pain is occurring on only one side and can be isolated upon general assessment. The nurse concludes that this description is most likely caused by:

• A. pleurisy.
• B. pleural effusion.
• C. atelectasis.
• D. tuberculosis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pleurisy is an inflammation of the pleura and is often accompanied by an abrupt onset of pain. Symptoms of pleurisy include sudden sharp, stabbing pain that is usually unilateral and localized to a specific portion of the chest. The pain can be exacerbated by deep breathing. In contrast, pleural effusion is characterized by fluid accumulation in the pleural space, not sharp pain. Atelectasis involves collapse or closure of a lung leading to reduced gas exchange, but it does not typically present with sharp, stabbing pain. Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can affect the lungs but does not typically manifest with sudden sharp pain exacerbated by deep breathing.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with an elevated urine osmolarity. The nurse should assess the client for:

• A. fluid volume excess.
• B. hyperkalemia.
• C. hypercalcemia.
• D. fluid volume deficit.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevated urine osmolarity indicates that the urine is concentrated, suggesting the body is trying to conserve water. This commonly occurs in conditions like dehydration or fluid volume deficit. Assessing the client for fluid volume excess, hyperkalemia, or hypercalcemia would not be the priority in this situation. Therefore, the correct answer is to assess the client for fluid volume deficit. Fluid volume excess is characterized by decreased urine osmolarity, while hyperkalemia and hypercalcemia are related to electrolyte imbalances and would not directly cause elevated urine osmolarity.

3. Which client should the nurse see first?

• A. Recurring crushing chest pain
• B. Needing an IV for surgery in 5 minutes
• C. Needing PCA morphine for pain control post-hysterectomy
• D. Waiting to get back to bed after sitting in a chair for 30 minutes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client presenting with recurring crushing chest pain should be seen first as this symptom could indicate a myocardial infarction (MI), which is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate attention. Assessing and managing potential cardiac issues take priority over other concerns like needing an IV for surgery, pain control post-hysterectomy, or assistance with mobility. While all clients require care, addressing the chest pain promptly is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being.

4. A client is having psychological counseling for problems communicating with his mother. Which model of stress is the most useful in reference to this stressor?

• A. Adaptation Model
• B. Stimulus-Based Model
• C. Transaction-Based Model
• D. Selye's Model of Stress

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Transaction-Based Model, proposed by R.S. Lazarus, is the most relevant model of stress in the context of a client facing communication issues with his mother. This model takes into consideration individual differences and cognitive processes that occur between a stressor and the individual's response. It emphasizes the importance of how the individual perceives and interprets the stressor, incorporating mental and psychological components. In this scenario, the client's difficulties in communicating with his mother involve complex cognitive processes and individual perceptions, making the Transaction-Based Model the most suitable choice. The other options are not as relevant in this context: the Adaptation Model focuses on adjustment to stress over time, the Stimulus-Based Model emphasizes external factors as stressors, and Selye's Model of Stress mainly centers on the physiological response to stress.

5. Which intervention should the nurse stop the nursing assistant from performing?

• A. Emptying the Jackson-Pratt drainage of the client post cholecystectomy
• B. Performing passive range of motion on the client with right-sided paralysis
• C. Placing the traction weights on the bed to transfer the client to X-ray
• D. Discarding the first urine voided by the client starting a 24-hour urine test

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing traction weights on the bed to transfer the client to X-ray is an intervention that the nurse should stop the nursing assistant from performing. Traction should never be relieved without a doctor's order as it can result in muscle spasm and tissue damage. The other choices are appropriate nursing interventions and should not be stopped. Emptying the Jackson-Pratt drainage, performing passive range of motion, and collecting the first urine void for a 24-hour urine test are all within the scope of practice and do not pose immediate risks to the client's well-being.

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