Nursing Elites

1. A nurse assesses an 83-year-old female's venous ulcer for the second time that is located near the right medial malleolus. The wound is exhibiting purulent drainage, and the patient has limited mobility in her home. Which of the following is the best course of action?

• A. Encourage warm water soaks to the right foot.
• B. Notify the case manager of the purulent drainage.
• C. Determine the patient's pulse in the right ankle.
• D. Recommend increased activity to reduce the purulent drainage.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct course of action is to encourage warm water soaks to the right foot. This can help promote wound healing and alleviate discomfort. Before recommending increased activity or notifying additional team members, it is crucial to assess arterial blood flow by determining the patient's pulse in the right ankle. Poor arterial blood flow could worsen the condition, making increased activity inappropriate. While notifying the case manager of purulent drainage is important, addressing the wound care directly should be the primary focus at this stage.

2. A client is 36 hours post-op a TKR surgery. 270 cc of sero-sanguinous fluid accumulates in the surgical drains. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Notify the doctor
• B. Empty the drain
• C. Do nothing
• D. Remove the drain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to notify the doctor. Significant sero-sanguinous drainage after TKR surgery could indicate a potential issue such as infection or bleeding. The physician needs to be informed promptly to assess the situation and determine the appropriate course of action. Emptying the drain, doing nothing, or removing the drain without consulting the physician could lead to complications going unnoticed or untreated. It is crucial to involve the physician in decision-making to ensure the best outcomes for the client.

3. The LPN is preparing to ambulate a client post total knee replacement. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform prior to ambulating the client?

• A. Assist the client to a sitting position at the edge of the bed
• B. Have the client march in place for 30 seconds
• C. Have the client raise his arms above his head
• D. Ask the client the last time he fell

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action to perform before ambulating a client post total knee replacement is to assist the client to a sitting position at the edge of the bed. This step is crucial to prevent orthostatic hypotension and ensure the client is ready to stand and walk safely. Having the client march in place or raise his arms above his head are not necessary preparations for ambulation. While knowing about the client's fall history is important for safety reasons, it is not the priority action immediately before ambulating the client.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver and suspects that the client may be developing hepatic encephalopathy. Which assessment by the nurse suggests that the client is developing this complication?

• A. Asterixis
• B. Hypertension
• C. Kussmaul respirations
• D. Lethargy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Asterixis, also known as flapping tremors, is a characteristic sign of hepatic encephalopathy. It is a flapping tremor of the hands when the wrists are extended, indicating neurological impairment. Hypertension and Kussmaul respirations are not directly associated with hepatic encephalopathy. Lethargy is a common symptom but not a specific sign that suggests the development of hepatic encephalopathy.

5. The drug of choice to decrease uric acid levels is:

• A. prednisone (Colisone)
• B. allopurinol (Zyloprim)
• C. indomethacin (Indocin)
• D. hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDiuril)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is allopurinol (Zyloprim) as it is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor that decreases uric acid formation. Allopurinol is commonly used to manage gout by lowering uric acid levels. Prednisone is a corticosteroid used to decrease inflammation, not to lower uric acid levels. Indomethacin is an analgesic, anti-inflammatory, and antipyretic agent, but it is not the drug of choice for lowering uric acid levels. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic used to treat hypertension and edema, not to decrease uric acid levels.

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