which isolation procedure will be followed for secretions and blood
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Next Generation Nclex Questions Overview 3.0 ATI Quizlet

1. Which isolation procedure will be followed for secretions and blood?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Standard Precautions. Standard precautions are taken in all situations for all clients and involve all body secretions except sweat. They are designed to reduce the rate of transmission of microbes from one host to another or one source to another. Respiratory Isolation (Choice A) is used for diseases transmitted by airborne particles, not secretions and blood. Contact Isolation (Choice C) is for clients known or suspected to be infected with microorganisms that can be transmitted by direct or indirect contact. Droplet Isolation (Choice D) is used for diseases transmitted by large respiratory droplets expelled during coughing, sneezing, talking, or procedures.

2. After delivery, a newborn undergoes an Apgar assessment. What does this scoring system evaluate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Apgar scoring system, developed by Virginia Apgar, an anesthesiologist, evaluates newborns based on five criteria: heart rate, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. These parameters provide a quick and simple assessment of a newborn's overall condition and the need for immediate medical attention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not encompass the essential elements evaluated by the Apgar scoring system.

3. Hearing screening of prematurely born infants is an effective means of identifying disease and is an example of:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Hearing screening for prematurely born infants falls under secondary prevention, which aims to identify and treat a condition in its early stages to prevent further complications. Primary prevention (choice A) focuses on preventing the disease from occurring, while tertiary prevention (choice C) involves managing complications and preventing disability. Choice D, disability prevention, is not a recognized category of prevention. In this context, the screening helps in early identification of hearing loss, allowing for timely intervention to prevent further impairment or complications, aligning with the principles of secondary prevention.

4. Which of the following NSAIDs is most commonly used for a brief period for acute pain?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Toradol is the correct answer because it is an NSAID known for its effectiveness in managing acute pain for short durations. It can be administered via intramuscular (IM), intravenous (IV), or oral (PO) routes. Advil (choice A) and Aleve (choice B) are commonly used for mild to moderate pain but may not be as effective for acute pain requiring immediate relief. Bextra (choice D) was withdrawn from the market due to safety concerns, making it an inappropriate choice for acute pain management.

5. When observing a dressing change by a graduate nurse on a Stage III pressure ulcer to the greater trochanter by the staff nurse, a need for further teaching is indicated after the following observation by the nurse:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is that the new graduate irrigates the pressure ulcer with half-strength hydrogen peroxide. Pressure ulcers should not be cleaned with substances that are cytotoxic, such as hydrogen peroxide or betadine. This can cause further damage to the wound and delay the healing process. Choice A is incorrect because irrigating the pressure ulcer with normal saline is an appropriate practice. Choice C is incorrect because packing the wound with sterile kerlix soaked in normal saline is also an appropriate step. Choice D is incorrect because applying a Duoderm dressing after cleansing is a standard procedure in wound care.

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