Nursing Elites

1. Which fetal heart monitor pattern can indicate cord compression?

• A. variable decelerations
• B. early decelerations
• C. bradycardia
• D. tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Variable decelerations can indicate cord compression as they are caused by umbilical cord compression or prolapse. This pattern shows an abrupt decrease in heart rate with an erratic shape, often resembling a V or W. Early decelerations (choice B) are typically caused by head compression during contractions and are considered benign. Bradycardia (choice C) is a consistent low heart rate below 110 bpm and is not specific to cord compression. Tachycardia (choice D) is an abnormally high heart rate above 160 bpm and is not associated with cord compression.

2. The nurse notices that a family is waiting at the nursing station desk for its loved one to be brought to the unit for admission during a change-of-shift report. The nurse should:

• A. request that the family wait for its loved one in the client's room and wait to resume the report until the family has left the desk area.
• B. request that a nursing assistant bring coffee for the family while it waits at the desk and continue with the report.
• C. request that the family have a seat in the station rather than stand while awaiting its loved one.
• D. request that the family wait for its loved one in the Emergency Department waiting room.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To protect the privacy of clients and the confidentiality of the information shared in a change-of-shift report, the family should be asked to wait in the client's room. This ensures that sensitive information is not overheard. The report should be resumed only after the family has left the desk area to maintain confidentiality. Choice B is incorrect as bringing coffee does not address the issue of maintaining confidentiality. Choice C is incorrect as standing or sitting in the station does not prevent the family from overhearing confidential information. Choice D is incorrect as the Emergency Department waiting room is not the appropriate setting for waiting during a unit admission.

3. The healthcare professional seeks to assess the renal function of an elderly client who is about to receive a nephrotoxic medication. Which of the following labs provides the best indicator for renal function?

• A. urinalysis
• B. creatinine and blood urea nitrogen
• C. chemistry of electrolytes
• D. creatinine clearance

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the context of an elderly client, assessing renal function before administering a nephrotoxic medication is crucial. While urinalysis and blood urea nitrogen provide valuable information on hydration status and overall health clues, they are not specific indicators of renal function. The chemistry of electrolytes may show abnormalities in renal failure, but it does not directly measure the kidneys' ability to eliminate waste. Creatinine clearance, on the other hand, is considered the best indicator for renal function in the elderly. This test accounts for decreases in lean body mass that can affect blood creatinine levels and is widely used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate, reflecting the kidneys' filtration capability. Therefore, creatinine clearance is the most appropriate lab test to assess renal function in this scenario.

4. Signs of internal bleeding include all of the following except:

• A. painful or swollen extremities
• B. a tender, rigid abdomen
• C. vomiting bile
• D. bruising

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Vomiting bile is not typically a sign of internal bleeding but is more commonly associated with issues in the gastrointestinal tract. Signs of internal bleeding include painful or swollen extremities, a tender, rigid abdomen, and bruising. Painful or swollen extremities can indicate bleeding from an extremity injury, a tender, rigid abdomen can signal abdominal bleeding, and bruising can result from blood vessel damage. Therefore, the correct answer is 'C: vomiting bile,' as it is not a typical sign of internal bleeding.

5. A new mother asks the nurse, 'I was told that my infant received my antibodies during pregnancy. Does that mean that my infant is protected against infections?' Which statement should the nurse make in response to the mother?

• A. The immune system of an infant is immature, and the infant is at risk for infection.
• B. The transfer of your antibodies protects your infant until the infant is 12 months old.
• C. Yes, your infant is protected from all infections.
• D. If you breastfeed, your infant is protected from infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The transplacental transfer of maternal antibodies supplements the infant's weak response to infection until approximately 3 to 4 months of age. While the infant starts producing immunoglobulin (Ig) soon after birth, it only reaches about 60% of the adult IgG level, 75% of the adult IgM level, and 20% of the adult IgA level by 1 year of age. Breast milk provides additional IgA protection. Although the immune system matures during infancy, full protection against infections is not achieved until early childhood, putting the infant at risk for infections. Choice B is incorrect because maternal antibody protection typically lasts around 3 to 4 months, not until the infant is 12 months old. Choice C is incorrect as infants are not shielded from all infections due to their immature immune system. Choice D is incorrect because while breastfeeding offers extra protection, it does not guarantee complete immunity against infections.

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