which fetal heart monitor pattern can indicate cord compression
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Safe and Effective Care Environment Nclex PN Questions

1. Which fetal heart monitor pattern can indicate cord compression?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Variable decelerations can indicate cord compression as they are caused by umbilical cord compression or prolapse. This pattern shows an abrupt decrease in heart rate with an erratic shape, often resembling a V or W. Early decelerations (choice B) are typically caused by head compression during contractions and are considered benign. Bradycardia (choice C) is a consistent low heart rate below 110 bpm and is not specific to cord compression. Tachycardia (choice D) is an abnormally high heart rate above 160 bpm and is not associated with cord compression.

2. All of the following clients are in need of an emergency assessment except:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'a client with an old injury.' Emergency assessments are required for immediate and life-threatening situations. Clients A, B, and D are in need of emergency assessments due to their critical conditions. Choice C, a client with an old injury, does not require an emergency assessment as it is not an acute or life-threatening situation. While the client with an old injury may still need medical attention, it does not necessitate an emergency assessment as the condition is not currently life-threatening or in need of immediate intervention.

3. Which isolation procedure will be followed for secretions and blood?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Standard Precautions. Standard precautions are taken in all situations for all clients and involve all body secretions except sweat. They are designed to reduce the rate of transmission of microbes from one host to another or one source to another. Respiratory Isolation (Choice A) is used for diseases transmitted by airborne particles, not secretions and blood. Contact Isolation (Choice C) is for clients known or suspected to be infected with microorganisms that can be transmitted by direct or indirect contact. Droplet Isolation (Choice D) is used for diseases transmitted by large respiratory droplets expelled during coughing, sneezing, talking, or procedures.

4. Acyclovir (Zovirax) is the agent of choice for which of the following infections?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acyclovir is an antiviral medication specifically effective in treating herpes infections. It works by inhibiting the replication of the herpes virus, shortening the duration of the infection. While Acyclovir can be used in HIV and AIDS patients to treat opportunistic viral infections, it is not a primary drug for managing HIV or AIDS itself. Candida is a type of fungus, and infections caused by Candida are treated with antifungal medications, not antivirals like Acyclovir. Therefore, the correct answer is herpes.

5. A nurse is taking a morning break with the unit secretary in the nurses' lounge. The unit secretary says to the nurse, 'I read in Mr. Gage's medical record that he has gonorrhea.' How should the nurse respond to the secretary?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A client's medical condition is confidential and should never be discussed with anyone other than the client and the client's healthcare provider. Therefore, the nurse must tell the unit secretary that the client's condition is not to be discussed. Choices A and B confirm the client's disease, which is inappropriate as it breaches patient confidentiality. Choice D promotes further discussion of the client's condition, which is also inappropriate. The correct response is to firmly state, 'We can't discuss a client's medical condition,' to uphold patient privacy and confidentiality.

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