Nursing Elites

1. Which fetal heart monitor pattern can indicate cord compression?

• A. variable decelerations
• B. early decelerations
• C. bradycardia
• D. tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Variable decelerations can indicate cord compression as they are caused by umbilical cord compression or prolapse. This pattern shows an abrupt decrease in heart rate with an erratic shape, often resembling a V or W. Early decelerations (choice B) are typically caused by head compression during contractions and are considered benign. Bradycardia (choice C) is a consistent low heart rate below 110 bpm and is not specific to cord compression. Tachycardia (choice D) is an abnormally high heart rate above 160 bpm and is not associated with cord compression.

2. An LPN on a Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI) team is tasked with implementing strategies to reduce medication errors. Which of the following strategies would be most beneficial for the LPN to implement?

• A. Track individuals who commit medication errors and report them to administration.
• B. Remind staff of the five rights of medication administration.
• C. Ensure that all staff members are proficient in completing incident reports if a medication error occurs.
• D. Double-check that staff document medication administration in the electronic medical record.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most beneficial strategy for the LPN on a CQI team to implement is to ensure that all staff members are proficient in completing incident reports if a medication error occurs. Organized and accurate incident reports are crucial in tracking and understanding why errors occurred. CQI teams utilize incident reports to develop new policies or enhance existing ones to standardize medical processes and reduce errors. Tracking individuals with medication errors (Choice A) may create a culture of blame rather than focusing on system improvements. Reminding staff of the five rights of medication administration (Choice B) is important for knowledge reinforcement but does not directly address the process improvement aspect. Double-checking documentation in the electronic medical record (Choice D) is necessary for accuracy but does not provide the detailed insights obtained from incident reports for process improvement.

3. What should be the primary action for a client who has just vomited 300 cc of bright red blood?

• A. Document the vomiting.
• B. Increase IV fluids.
• C. Get a complete blood count.
• D. Check the blood pressure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for a client who has just vomited 300 cc of bright red blood is to check the blood pressure. This assessment is crucial to evaluate for hypotension, which could indicate significant blood loss and the need for immediate intervention. Documenting the vomiting is important for the client's medical record but not the initial priority. Increasing IV fluids and getting a complete blood count are necessary steps but should follow the assessment of the client's hemodynamic status.

4. While documenting on a paper form, the nurse realizes they have made a mistake writing the progress note. What should the nurse do?

• A. Use a black marker to fully cover up the mistake.
• B. Do not make any changes to the progress note but explain later in the note that a mistake was made and note what should have been written.
• C. Use whiteout to cover over the mistake and write over it.
• D. Inform the client about the mistake and offer to provide a corrected copy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, it is essential for the nurse not to alter the original progress note. Option B is the correct course of action as it maintains the integrity of the documentation while acknowledging the error for transparency and accuracy. Using a black marker (Option A) or whiteout (Option C) can be seen as an attempt to conceal the mistake, which is not in line with professional standards. Option D is incorrect because the mistake should be addressed within the documentation itself, not by informing the client directly about it.

5. Why is padding on a restraint helpful?

• A. To distribute pressure so that bony prominences do not receive pressure when a client pulls against the restraints.
• B. To help the client feel more secure.
• C. To keep infection and wounds at bay.
• D. To keep restraints in place.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Padding on a restraint helps distribute pressure to prevent bony prominences from bearing excessive pressure when a client pulls against the restraints. This is crucial to avoid tissue damage caused by ischemia. The correct answer focuses on the physiological benefit of padding in reducing pressure on vulnerable areas to prevent harm. Choice B is incorrect as the primary purpose of padding is not emotional comfort but preventing physical harm. Choice C is incorrect as while padding can indirectly help prevent infection and wounds by reducing pressure, its primary function is pressure distribution. Choice D is incorrect as the main purpose of padding is not to keep the restraints in place but to protect the client's skin and tissues from pressure-related injuries.

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