NCLEX-PN
Safe and Effective Care Environment Nclex PN Questions
1. Which fetal heart monitor pattern can indicate cord compression?
- A. variable decelerations
- B. early decelerations
- C. bradycardia
- D. tachycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Variable decelerations can indicate cord compression as they are caused by umbilical cord compression or prolapse. This pattern shows an abrupt decrease in heart rate with an erratic shape, often resembling a V or W. Early decelerations (choice B) are typically caused by head compression during contractions and are considered benign. Bradycardia (choice C) is a consistent low heart rate below 110 bpm and is not specific to cord compression. Tachycardia (choice D) is an abnormally high heart rate above 160 bpm and is not associated with cord compression.
2. A case manager is reviewing the records of the clients in the nursing unit. Which note(s) in a client's record indicate an unexpected outcome and the need for follow-up?
- A. A client is performing their own colostomy irrigations.
- B. A client with a central venous catheter has a temperature of 100.6�F.
- C. A client who has just undergone surgery has a urine output of more than 30 mL/hr.
- D. A client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is self-administering insulin.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A case manager is a healthcare professional responsible for coordinating a client's care from admission through and after discharge. They evaluate and update the plan of care as needed, monitoring for unexpected outcomes and providing follow-up. A temperature of 100.6�F in a client with a central venous catheter is an unexpected outcome that requires follow-up due to the potential indication of an infection. Choices A, C, and D describe expected outcomes and appropriate self-care management. The client self-irrigating their colostomy, a post-surgical client having adequate urine output, and a newly diagnosed diabetic self-administering insulin are all positive indicators of self-care and expected outcomes, not requiring immediate follow-up.
3. Under what circumstances is the legal right to confidentiality of client information waived?
- A. When a court system subpoenas information.
- B. When a family member requests health care information of a client.
- C. When a living will takes effect.
- D. When the client is declared incompetent by the legal system.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The legal right to confidentiality of client information is waived when a court system subpoenas information. This occurs when information is required for legal proceedings to occur, such as through summonses, court orders, or litigation information necessary for the court. Subpoenas are legal orders that compel the disclosure of information. The other choices do not inherently waive the legal right to confidentiality. A family member's request for health care information would typically require the client's consent or fall under specific legal exceptions. A living will dictates end-of-life care preferences but does not necessarily waive confidentiality. Lastly, the declaration of incompetence may impact decision-making capacity but does not automatically waive confidentiality.
4. The client is being taught about the use of Rifampin for prophylaxis following exposure to meningitis. What change in bodily functions should the client be informed about?
- A. The client's urine may turn blue.
- B. The client remains infectious to others for 48 hours.
- C. The client's contact lenses may be stained orange.
- D. The client's skin may take on a crimson glow.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Rifampin has the unusual effect of turning body fluids an orange color. Soft contact lenses might become permanently stained. Clients should be taught about these side effects to avoid unnecessary concern. Option A is incorrect as Rifampin does not cause the urine to turn blue. Option B is incorrect as the client is not infectious to others due to taking Rifampin for prophylaxis. Option D is incorrect as Rifampin does not cause the skin to take on a crimson glow.
5. In an emergency situation, the nurse determines whether a client has an airway obstruction. Which of the following does the nurse assess?
- A. ability to speak
- B. ability to hear
- C. oxygen saturation
- D. adventitious breath sounds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In an emergency situation to assess for airway obstruction, the nurse should prioritize assessing the client's ability to speak. If a client can speak, it indicates that the airway is patent and not completely obstructed, allowing air to pass through the vocal cords for speech production. Choices B, C, and D are not the primary assessments for determining airway obstruction. Assessing the ability to hear is not directly related to an airway obstruction. While oxygen saturation and adventitious breath sounds are important in respiratory assessments, they are not the initial indicators of an airway obstruction. Oxygen saturation reflects the amount of oxygen in the blood, and adventitious breath sounds refer to abnormal lung sounds that may indicate conditions like pneumonia or bronchitis, but they do not specifically confirm airway patency.
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