Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following scenarios are considered violations of HIPAA laws?

• A. Discussing discharge plans with a client in a multi-bed recovery room with the curtain drawn around the client's bed.
• B. Looking up the medical information of a friend without permission.
• C. Checking on your spouse's medical record because you are listed as her power of attorney.
• D. Avoiding conversations about clients while in line in the cafeteria with a mutual caregiver of that client.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Scenarios B and C are considered violations of HIPAA laws. Looking up the medical information of a friend who is not in your care, even with permission, is a violation of HIPAA as the friend is not your patient. Checking on your spouse's medical record, even as a power of attorney, is a violation unless it is directly related to caregiving decisions. Discussing discharge plans with a client in a multi-bed recovery room with the curtain drawn around the client's bed is not a violation of HIPAA. This scenario is considered an 'incidental disclosure' and is not a breach of HIPAA privacy rules. Avoiding conversations about clients while in line in the cafeteria with a mutual caregiver of that client is actually a good practice as it maintains client confidentiality.

2. Priorities designated as intermediate by the nurse are:

• A. the nonemergency, non-life-threatening needs of the client.
• B. those tasks that can be delegated to assistive personnel.
• C. those tasks that can be performed at the end of the shift.
• D. those tasks that can be performed at any time

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Priorities designated as intermediate by the nurse are those that are not urgent but still important, such as the nonemergency, non-life-threatening needs of the client. They do not impact the client's immediate physiological status but require attention. Intermediate priorities may need the skill level of an RN for completion and may have specific time requirements. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the priority being intermediate doesn't mean it can be delegated, done at a specific time, or done at any time; it simply indicates a non-urgent but necessary task for the client's well-being.

3. At what point in the nurse-client relationship should termination first be addressed?

• A. in the working phase
• B. in the termination phase
• C. in the orientation phase
• D. when the client initially brings up the topic

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Termination in the nurse-client relationship should first be addressed in the orientation phase. This is because the client has a right to know the parameters of the relationship from the beginning. During the orientation phase, it is important to discuss if the relationship is time-limited, inform the client about the number of sessions, or explain that it is open-ended with the termination date to be negotiated later. Addressing termination in the orientation phase helps establish transparency and clear communication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because termination discussions should ideally start at the beginning of the relationship to set appropriate expectations.

4. How many feet should separate the nurse and the source when extinguishing a small, wastebasket fire with an appropriate extinguisher?

• A. 1 foot
• B. 2 feet
• C. 4 feet
• D. 6 feet

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should stand about 6 feet from the source of the fire. Getting closer might put the nurse in danger. Choice A, 1 foot, is incorrect because it is too close to the fire and can expose the nurse to unnecessary risk. Choice B, 2 feet, is also too close to the fire and may lead to potential harm. Similarly, choice C, 4 feet, is not the ideal distance as it is still within the range of potential danger. The correct answer is D, 6 feet, which is a safe distance for the nurse to extinguish the fire effectively without risking personal safety.

5. What is the most appropriate feeding method for a client who is unable to swallow?

• A. Nothing by mouth
• B. Nasogastric feedings
• C. Clear liquids
• D. Total parenteral nutrition

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nasogastric feedings are the most appropriate feeding method for a client who is unable to swallow. Providing nothing by mouth can lead to nutritional deficiencies, while clear liquids might cause aspiration. Total parenteral nutrition is not necessary if the gastrointestinal tract is functional. Nasogastric feedings are preferred as they can safely provide nutrition without the risks associated with not eating or aspirating.

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