Nursing Elites

1. To ensure proper immobilization and increase client comfort when using a rigid splint, what should be done?

• A. Place the client on a stretcher before splinting.
• B. Place the client on a long spine board before splinting.
• C. Pad the spaces between the body part and the splint.
• D. Ensure that the splint conforms to the body curves.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct. When using a rigid splint, it is essential to pad the spaces between the body part and the splint to ensure proper immobilization and increase client comfort. This padding helps prevent pressure points and ensures a proper fit of the splint without causing discomfort. Placing the client on a stretcher or a long spine board before splinting (choices A and B) may be necessary for transportation but does not directly relate to the proper use of a rigid splint. Ensuring that the splint conforms to the body curves (choice D) is important but not as crucial as padding the spaces to prevent discomfort and ensure proper immobilization.

2. Which of these should not be included when calculating a client's fluid intake?

• A. ice chips
• B. Jell-O�
• C. pudding
• D. IV fluid from an antibiotic piggyback

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pudding is a semi-solid and does not contribute significantly to fluid intake as it does not melt at room temperature. Therefore, it should not be included in fluid intake calculations. On the other hand, ice chips, Jell-O�, and IV fluid from an antibiotic piggyback are all sources of fluid that can significantly contribute to a client's total fluid intake and should be considered when calculating it. Ice chips and Jell-O� provide hydration upon melting, while IV fluid directly adds to the fluid volume in the body.

3. An advance directive is written and notarized according to law in the state of Colorado. This document is legal and binding:

• A. internationally.
• B. in the state of Colorado only.
• C. in the continental United States.
• D. in the county of origination only.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'in the state of Colorado only.' Advance directive protocols and documents are specific to each state's laws and regulations. Choice A is incorrect as advance directives are not universally recognized internationally. Choice C is incorrect as the legal validity of an advance directive is limited to the state in which it was created. Choice D is incorrect as the legal reach of an advance directive typically extends throughout the state of origination, not just the county.

4. When a client is having a seizure and their blood oxygen saturation drops from 92% to 82%, what should the nurse do first?

• A. Open the airway.
• B. Administer oxygen.
• C. Suction the client.
• D. Check for breathing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is experiencing a seizure and their blood oxygen saturation drops, the priority action for the nurse is to open the airway. Ensuring a clear airway is essential to maintain oxygenation during a seizure episode. Administering oxygen may be necessary but is secondary to ensuring a patent airway. Suctioning the client should only be done if there is an airway obstruction. Checking for breathing is important, but opening the airway takes precedence to support ventilation and oxygenation.

5. Which of the following lab values is elevated first after a client has a myocardial infarction?

• A. LDH
• B. troponin
• C. CPK
• D. SGOT

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is troponin. Troponin levels are the most specific and sensitive markers for myocardial infarction, and they begin to rise within a few hours after the event. CPK, SGOT, and LDH are also enzymes that can indicate myocardial damage, but troponin is the earliest and most specific indicator. CPK typically rises 4-8 hours after an infarction, followed by SGOT (AST) at 8-12 hours, and LDH at 12-24 hours post-infarction.

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