Nursing Elites

1. To ensure proper immobilization and increase client comfort when using a rigid splint, what should be done?

• A. Place the client on a stretcher before splinting.
• B. Place the client on a long spine board before splinting.
• C. Pad the spaces between the body part and the splint.
• D. Ensure that the splint conforms to the body curves.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct. When using a rigid splint, it is essential to pad the spaces between the body part and the splint to ensure proper immobilization and increase client comfort. This padding helps prevent pressure points and ensures a proper fit of the splint without causing discomfort. Placing the client on a stretcher or a long spine board before splinting (choices A and B) may be necessary for transportation but does not directly relate to the proper use of a rigid splint. Ensuring that the splint conforms to the body curves (choice D) is important but not as crucial as padding the spaces to prevent discomfort and ensure proper immobilization.

2. Which of these should not be included when calculating a client's fluid intake?

• A. ice chips
• B. Jell-O™
• C. pudding
• D. IV fluid from an antibiotic piggyback

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pudding is a semi-solid and does not contribute significantly to fluid intake as it does not melt at room temperature. Therefore, it should not be included in fluid intake calculations. On the other hand, ice chips, Jell-O™, and IV fluid from an antibiotic piggyback are all sources of fluid that can significantly contribute to a client's total fluid intake and should be considered when calculating it. Ice chips and Jell-O™ provide hydration upon melting, while IV fluid directly adds to the fluid volume in the body.

3. The advanced directive in a client's chart is dated August 12, 1998. The client's daughter produces a Power of Attorney for Health Care, dated 2003, which contains different care directions. What should the nurse do?

• A. Follow the 1998 version because it's part of the legal chart.
• B. Follow the 1998 version because the physician's code order is based on it.
• C. Follow the 2003 version, place it in the chart, and communicate the update appropriately.
• D. Follow neither until clarified by the unit manager.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The document dated 2003 supersedes the previous version and should be used as a basis for care directions. The nurse should follow the 2003 version, place it in the chart, and communicate the update appropriately to ensure that the most current care directions are followed. Choices A and B are incorrect because the 1998 version is now outdated, and the nurse should not rely on it for care decisions. Choice D is incorrect because the nurse should not delay following the updated document, and seeking clarification from the unit manager can lead to avoidable delays in care.

4. In a disaster triage situation, which of the following should the nurse be least concerned with regarding a client in crisis?

• A. ability to breathe
• B. pallor or cyanosis of the skin
• C. number of accompanying family members
• D. motor function

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a disaster triage situation where quick decisions are crucial, the nurse's primary focus should be on factors directly related to the patient's immediate condition and survival. The ability to breathe, pallor or cyanosis of the skin, and motor function are critical indicators of a patient's health status and need for urgent intervention. In contrast, the number of accompanying family members, although important for emotional support, is not a priority when assessing and prioritizing care during a crisis. While emotional support is valuable, the focus in triage is on identifying and addressing the most critical and life-threatening issues first to maximize survival chances. Therefore, the nurse should be least concerned with the number of accompanying family members as it does not directly impact the patient's immediate medical needs in a crisis situation. Choices A, B, and D are all crucial factors to assess a client's health status and determine the urgency of intervention during a disaster triage. The ability to breathe indicates respiratory function, pallor or cyanosis of the skin reflect circulatory and oxygenation status, and motor function can hint at neurological impairment or injury, all of which are vital in determining the severity of the crisis and the immediate medical needs of the patient.

5. A client with a closed chest tube drainage system accidentally disconnects the chest tube while being turned by the nurse. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Submerge the end of the chest tube in a bottle of sterile water
• B. Clamp the chest tube with a Kelly clamp
• C. Call the health care provider
• D. Instruct the client to inhale and hold his breath

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a chest tube becomes disconnected, the priority action is to immediately reattach it to the drainage system or submerge the end in a bottle of sterile water or saline solution to reestablish a water seal. This helps prevent air from entering the pleural space and causing complications. Calling the health care provider is important but not the first action in this emergency. Instructing the client to inhale and hold his breath should be avoided as it can introduce atmospheric air into the pleural space, leading to potential issues. Clamping the chest tube is generally contraindicated, especially in cases of residual air leak or pneumothorax, as it may result in a tension pneumothorax by preventing air from escaping.

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