Nursing Elites

1. What is the best definition of ethics in nursing?

• A. advocating for the client
• B. knowing your scope of practice
• C. being able to differentiate right from wrong
• D. being willing to report violations

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ethics in nursing refers to the moral principles that govern a nurse's behavior and decision-making. It involves being able to differentiate right from wrong, making choices that are morally sound, and upholding integrity in patient care. While advocating for the client (choice A) is an important aspect of nursing care, it does not fully encompass the broad concept of ethics. Knowing your scope of practice (choice B) is essential for safe and competent care but is not a comprehensive definition of ethics. Being willing to report violations (choice D) is part of ethical practice, but it is not the core definition of ethics in nursing.

2. Which of these statements is true regarding advance directives?

• A. They must be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years in order to remain valid.
• B. An advance directive is legally valid in every state, regardless of the state it was created in.
• C. A physician must determine when a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.
• D. They cannot be honored by EMTs (emergency medical technicians) unless signed by a doctor.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement is that advance directives cannot be honored by EMTs unless they are signed by a doctor. EMTs are required to provide emergency care to a client, irrespective of their advance directive status, unless the directive has been signed by a doctor. When a client is brought to the hospital, physicians will assess the client and implement the advance directive if necessary. Advance directives do not need to be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years to remain valid; they remain in effect until changed. While advance directives are legally valid in most states, some states may not honor those created in other states, so it's advisable to check the new state's policies if a client moves. Additionally, it typically requires two physicians, not just one, to determine if a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.

3. To remove hard contact lenses from an unresponsive client, what should the nurse do?

• A. Gently irrigate the eye with an irrigating solution from the inner canthus outward
• B. Grasp the lens with a gentle pinching motion
• C. Don sterile gloves before attempting the procedure
• D. Ensure that the lens is centered on the cornea before gently manipulating the lids to release the lens

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When removing hard contact lenses from an unresponsive client, the nurse should ensure that the lens is centered on the cornea before gently manipulating the lids to release the lens. This approach helps prevent scratching the cornea. Gently maneuvering the upper and lower eyelids assists in loosening the lens for easy removal. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because irrigating the eye, grasping the lens, or wearing sterile gloves are not recommended methods for removing hard contact lenses. It is crucial to handle the situation delicately to avoid causing harm or discomfort to the client.

4. Which fetal heart monitor pattern can indicate cord compression?

• A. variable decelerations
• B. early decelerations
• C. bradycardia
• D. tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Variable decelerations can indicate cord compression as they are caused by umbilical cord compression or prolapse. This pattern shows an abrupt decrease in heart rate with an erratic shape, often resembling a V or W. Early decelerations (choice B) are typically caused by head compression during contractions and are considered benign. Bradycardia (choice C) is a consistent low heart rate below 110 bpm and is not specific to cord compression. Tachycardia (choice D) is an abnormally high heart rate above 160 bpm and is not associated with cord compression.

5. Which of the following tasks are appropriate for an LPN to perform?

• A. Adjusting the cervical traction device of a 68-year-old client as instructed by the charge nurse.
• B. performing operation on a woman in labour
• C. Assessing a 36-year-old man newly admitted for chest pain.
• D. Obtaining an occult blood sample from a 16-year-old client with ulcerative colitis.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tasks appropriate for an LPN to perform include teaching, obtaining samples, and documenting. LPNs can educate clients on care practices, such as teaching a new mother how to care for her baby. Obtaining samples, like an occult blood sample, falls within the scope of an LPN's responsibilities. Assessments, especially initial assessments, should be conducted by a registered nurse or physician, making option C incorrect. Adjusting devices like a cervical traction device should be done based on direct orders from prescribing providers, not charge nurses, making option A inappropriate for an LPN's role.

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