Nursing Elites

1. When the healthcare provider is determining the appropriate size of a nasopharyngeal airway to insert, which body part should be measured on the client?

• A. corner of the mouth to tragus of the ear
• B. corner of the eye to top of the ear
• C. tip of the chin to the sternum
• D. tip of the nose to the earlobe

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A nasopharyngeal airway is measured from the tip of the nose to the earlobe. This measurement ensures that the airway is of the correct length to reach the nasopharynx without being too long or too short. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not provide the appropriate measurement for selecting the correct size of a nasopharyngeal airway. The distance from the corner of the mouth to the tragus of the ear (Choice A) is used to measure for an oropharyngeal airway, not a nasopharyngeal airway. Similarly, the other choices (B and C) do not correlate with the correct measurement of a nasopharyngeal airway.

2. When a physician removes a chest tube, which type of dressing is recommended to be placed over the site?

• A. transparent dressing
• B. colloidal dressing
• C. petrolatum gauze
• D. nonadherent dressing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Petrolatum gauze is recommended to be placed over the site when a physician removes a chest tube because it forms an airtight seal, helping prevent air from entering the pleural space. This airtight seal is crucial to avoid complications such as a pneumothorax. Transparent dressing is not ideal for this purpose as it may not provide a sufficient seal due to its design. Colloidal dressing and nonadherent dressing are also not suitable for chest tube removal sites as they do not offer the same level of protection against air leakage and may not provide the necessary sealing properties.

3. In a disaster situation, the nurse assessing a diabetic client on insulin assesses for all of the following except:

• A. diabetic signs and symptoms.
• B. nutritional status.
• C. bleeding problems.
• D. availability of insulin.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a disaster situation, when assessing a diabetic client on insulin, the nurse needs to consider various factors. Diabetic signs and symptoms, nutritional status, and availability of insulin are crucial aspects to assess for appropriate management during a crisis. However, bleeding problems are not directly related to diabetes or insulin therapy. Therefore, assessing for bleeding problems is not a priority in this context. Choice C, bleeding problems, is the correct answer as it is not typically associated with diabetes, unlike the other options provided.

4. The healthcare professional seeks to assess the renal function of an elderly client who is about to receive a nephrotoxic medication. Which of the following labs provides the best indicator for renal function?

• A. urinalysis
• B. creatinine and blood urea nitrogen
• C. chemistry of electrolytes
• D. creatinine clearance

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the context of an elderly client, assessing renal function before administering a nephrotoxic medication is crucial. While urinalysis and blood urea nitrogen provide valuable information on hydration status and overall health clues, they are not specific indicators of renal function. The chemistry of electrolytes may show abnormalities in renal failure, but it does not directly measure the kidneys' ability to eliminate waste. Creatinine clearance, on the other hand, is considered the best indicator for renal function in the elderly. This test accounts for decreases in lean body mass that can affect blood creatinine levels and is widely used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate, reflecting the kidneys' filtration capability. Therefore, creatinine clearance is the most appropriate lab test to assess renal function in this scenario.

5. A client has signed the informed consent for mastectomy of the left breast. On the morning of the surgical procedure, the client asks the nurse several questions about the procedure that make it obvious that she does not have an adequate comprehension of the procedure. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. Telling the client that she needed to ask these questions before signing the informed consent for surgery
• B. Contacting the surgeon and requesting that she visit the client to answer her questions
• C. Informing the client that she has the right to cancel the surgical procedure if she wishes
• D. Telling the client that it is her surgeon's responsibility to explain the procedure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Informed consent is the authorization by a client or a client's legal representative to do something to the client. The surgeon is primarily responsible for explaining the surgical procedure and obtaining informed consent. If the client asks questions that alert the nurse to an inadequacy of comprehension on the client's part, the nurse has the obligation to contact the surgeon. Choice A is incorrect as the client should be allowed to ask questions even after signing the consent for surgery. Choice C is not the most appropriate response, as the primary concern is to address the client's lack of comprehension. Choice D is inaccurate, as while it is the surgeon's responsibility to explain the procedure, in this scenario, the nurse should take immediate action to ensure the client's understanding. Requesting the surgeon to visit and answer the client's questions is the most appropriate response in this situation, as it directly addresses the client's concerns and ensures proper informed consent is obtained.

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