Nursing Elites

1. When the healthcare provider is determining the appropriate size of a nasopharyngeal airway to insert, which body part should be measured on the client?

• A. corner of the mouth to tragus of the ear
• B. corner of the eye to top of the ear
• C. tip of the chin to the sternum
• D. tip of the nose to the earlobe

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A nasopharyngeal airway is measured from the tip of the nose to the earlobe. This measurement ensures that the airway is of the correct length to reach the nasopharynx without being too long or too short. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not provide the appropriate measurement for selecting the correct size of a nasopharyngeal airway. The distance from the corner of the mouth to the tragus of the ear (Choice A) is used to measure for an oropharyngeal airway, not a nasopharyngeal airway. Similarly, the other choices (B and C) do not correlate with the correct measurement of a nasopharyngeal airway.

2. A new nurse employed at a community hospital is reading the organization's mission statement. The new nurse understands that this statement is written for which purpose?

• A. To outline what the organization plans to accomplish
• B. To identify the policies and procedures of the organization
• C. To describe the benefits available to employees
• D. To define the rules of the organization that the employees must follow

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'To outline what the organization plans to accomplish.' A mission statement expresses the purpose or reason for an organization's existence, outlining what it aims to achieve. It often includes statements of philosophy, purpose, and goals. This statement serves as a benchmark for evaluating the organization's performance. The mission statement is not meant to identify policies and procedures (Choice B) or describe employee benefits (Choice C). Choice B specifies the administrative guidelines and protocols of the organization, while Choice C pertains to the perks available to employees. Choice D is incorrect as the rules of the organization that employees must follow are usually detailed in employee handbooks or codes of conduct, not in the mission statement.

3. Which of these statements is true regarding advance directives?

• A. They must be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years in order to remain valid.
• B. An advance directive is legally valid in every state, regardless of the state it was created in.
• C. A physician must determine when a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.
• D. They cannot be honored by EMTs (emergency medical technicians) unless signed by a doctor.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement is that advance directives cannot be honored by EMTs unless they are signed by a doctor. EMTs are required to provide emergency care to a client, irrespective of their advance directive status, unless the directive has been signed by a doctor. When a client is brought to the hospital, physicians will assess the client and implement the advance directive if necessary. Advance directives do not need to be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years to remain valid; they remain in effect until changed. While advance directives are legally valid in most states, some states may not honor those created in other states, so it's advisable to check the new state's policies if a client moves. Additionally, it typically requires two physicians, not just one, to determine if a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.

4. A case management clinical pathway for congestive heart failure might include all of the following except:

• A. physician follow-up appointments with transportation
• B. client education regarding medication use
• C. a nutritional consult for diet review and accommodation
• D. insurance review for reimbursement

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a case management clinical pathway for congestive heart failure, the focus is on providing medical care and support to the patient. Choices A, B, and C are integral parts of managing congestive heart failure. Physician follow-up appointments with transportation ensure continuity of care, client education about medication use is crucial for adherence, and a nutritional consult helps in managing the patient's diet. However, insurance review for reimbursement is not typically part of the clinical pathway as it pertains to financial aspects and is usually handled by billing departments or external agencies. Therefore, the correct answer is 'insurance review for reimbursement.'

5. Which type of diet should the nurse provide to help a client who has major burns maintain a positive nitrogen balance?

• A. high protein
• B. high carbohydrate
• C. low carbohydrate
• D. low protein

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with major burns are in a hypermetabolic state, leading to increased protein catabolism. Therefore, a high-protein diet is essential to help them maintain a positive nitrogen balance and support wound healing. High carbohydrate diets do not directly contribute to achieving a positive nitrogen balance, making choice B incorrect. Similarly, low carbohydrate diets are not recommended for clients with major burns as carbohydrates provide essential energy needed for healing. Low protein diets are contraindicated for clients with major burns as they require higher protein intake to support tissue repair and prevent further breakdown.

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