NCLEX-PN
NCLEX-PN Quizlet 2023
1. Which of the following is the drug of choice to decrease uric acid levels?
- A. prednisone (Colisone)
- B. allopurinol (Zyloprim)
- C. indomethacin (Indocin)
- D. hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDiuril)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Allopurinol is the correct drug to decrease uric acid levels as it is used to treat gout by reducing uric acid formation. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that decreases inflammation, not uric acid levels. Indomethacin is an analgesic, anti-inflammatory, and antipyretic agent, not specifically used to reduce uric acid levels. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic primarily used for treating hypertension and edema, not for reducing uric acid levels.
2. A client is admitted for observation following an unrestrained motor vehicle accident. A bystander stated that he lost consciousness for 1-2 minutes. On admission, the client's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) was 14. The GCS is now 12. The nurse should:
- A. Re-assess in 15 minutes
- B. Stimulate the client with a sternal rub
- C. Administer Tylenol with codeine for a headache
- D. Notify the physician
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A decrease in the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score from 14 to 12 indicates a significant neurological change in the client's condition. This change can be indicative of a deterioration in the client's neurological status, possibly due to intracranial bleeding or swelling. It is crucial for the nurse to notify the physician immediately to ensure prompt evaluation and intervention. Re-assessing in 15 minutes or stimulating the client with a sternal rub are not appropriate actions in this situation as they do not address the underlying cause of the decrease in GCS. Administering Tylenol with codeine for a headache is also not recommended without further assessment and evaluation of the client's condition.
3. How can a diet high in fiber content benefit an individual?
- A. aid in rapid weight loss.
- B. reduce diabetic ketoacidosis.
- C. lower cholesterol.
- D. reduce the requirement for folate.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A diet high in fiber content can help lower cholesterol levels. Fiber-rich foods such as grains, apples, potatoes, and beans are known to aid in reducing cholesterol by binding to cholesterol in the digestive system and preventing its absorption into the bloodstream. Choice A is incorrect as the question does not specify losing weight rapidly but rather focuses on the benefits of a high-fiber diet, which includes aiding in weight management through promoting satiety and regulating digestion. Choice B is incorrect because while fiber helps manage blood sugar levels, it is not directly related to reducing diabetic ketoacidosis, a serious complication of diabetes. Choice D is incorrect as a high-fiber diet does not reduce the need for folate; however, it can aid in the absorption of folate and other essential nutrients.
4. Chemotherapeutic agents often produce a degree of myelosuppression including leukopenia. Leukopenia does not present immediately but is delayed several days or weeks because:
- A. the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit are normal.
- B. red blood cells are affected first.
- C. folic acid levels are normal.
- D. the current white cell count is not affected by chemotherapy.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Leukopenia does not present immediately after chemotherapy because time is required to clear circulating cells before the effect on precursor cell maturation in the bone marrow becomes evident. Leukopenia is characterized by an abnormally low white blood cell count. The correct answer is D because the white cell count is not immediately affected by chemotherapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they pertain to red blood cells (hemoglobin and hematocrit), which are not directly related to the delayed onset of leukopenia.
5. A female sex worker enters a clinic for treatment of a sexually transmitted disease. This disease is the most prevalent STD in the United States. The nurse can anticipate that the woman has which of the following?
- A. herpes
- B. chlamydia
- C. gonorrhea
- D. syphilis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The question describes a female sex worker seeking treatment for the most prevalent sexually transmitted disease in the United States. Chlamydia is the correct answer as it is the most common STD in the country according to epidemiological studies. While herpes (choice A) is common, it is not the most prevalent. Gonorrhea (choice C) and syphilis (choice D) are less prevalent compared to chlamydia, making them incorrect choices.
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