NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Question of The Day
1. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease arrives in the emergency department complaining of weakness and states that he vomited 'a lot of dark coffee-looking stomach contents.' The client is cool and moist to the touch. BP 90/50, HR 110, RR 20, T 98. Of the following physician orders, which will the nurse perform first?
- A. Initiate oxygen at 2 liters/nasal cannula.
- B. Start an IV of NS at 150 ml/hr
- C. Insert NG tube to low suction
- D. Attach the client to the ECG monitor
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to initiate oxygen at 2 liters/nasal cannula. The client is presenting signs of shock with hypotension, tachycardia, and cool, moist skin, which indicate poor tissue perfusion. Oxygen should be administered first to improve tissue oxygenation. While all interventions are important, oxygenation takes priority in the ABCs of emergency care. Starting an IV of NS, inserting an NG tube, and attaching the client to the ECG monitor are necessary interventions but should follow the priority of oxygen administration in this scenario.
2. What is an appropriate intervention for the client with suspected genitourinary trauma and visible blood at the urethral meatus?
- A. Insertion of a Foley catheter.
- B. Performing an in-and-out catheter specimen for urinalysis.
- C. Obtaining a voided urine specimen for urinalysis.
- D. Ordering a urinalysis by the physician.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client presents with suspected genitourinary trauma and visible blood at the urethral meatus, obtaining a voided urine specimen for urinalysis is an appropriate intervention. This helps assess for any urinary tract injuries or abnormalities without further traumatizing the area. Insertion of a Foley catheter (Choice A) should be avoided as it can worsen the existing trauma. Performing an in-and-out catheter specimen (Choice B) involves unnecessary manipulation and can increase the risk of complications. Ordering a urinalysis by the physician (Choice D) may delay the assessment compared to obtaining a direct voided urine specimen.
3. A client is 36 hours post-op a TKR surgery. 270 cc of sero-sanguinous fluid accumulates in the surgical drains. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Notify the doctor
- B. Empty the drain
- C. Do nothing
- D. Remove the drain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to notify the doctor. Significant sero-sanguinous drainage after TKR surgery could indicate a potential issue such as infection or bleeding. The physician needs to be informed promptly to assess the situation and determine the appropriate course of action. Emptying the drain, doing nothing, or removing the drain without consulting the physician could lead to complications going unnoticed or untreated. It is crucial to involve the physician in decision-making to ensure the best outcomes for the client.
4. A nurse is caring for her clients when her new admit arrives on the unit. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. Ask the nursing assistant to complete emptying the catheter bag and assess the new admission.
- B. Ask the nursing assistant to take vital signs on the new admit and begin the history until she can get there.
- C. Ask the graduate nurse on the floor to initiate the assessment process until she can get there.
- D. Ask the unit secretary to make the client and family comfortable until she can complete her present task.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate action for the nurse in this situation is to ask the graduate nurse on the floor to initiate the assessment process until she can arrive. Nursing assistants are not qualified to perform assessments, and the unit secretary's role does not involve client assessments. Delegating the assessment to the graduate nurse ensures that a qualified healthcare professional is evaluating the new admission, aligning with the nurse's responsibilities and providing appropriate care.
5. Which of the following terms refers to soft tissue injury caused by blunt force?
- A. contusion
- B. strain
- C. sprain
- D. dislocation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A contusion is a soft tissue injury caused by blunt force. It is an injury that does not break the skin, caused by a blow, and characterized by swelling, discoloration, and pain. The immediate application of cold might limit the development of a contusion. A strain is a muscle pull from overuse, overstretching, or excessive stress. A sprain is caused by a wrenching or twisting motion. A dislocation is a condition where the articular surfaces of the bones forming a joint are no longer in anatomical contact. Therefore, the correct answer is 'contusion' as it specifically relates to soft tissue injury caused by blunt force.
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