Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease arrives in the emergency department complaining of weakness and states that he vomited 'a lot of dark coffee-looking stomach contents.' The client is cool and moist to the touch. BP 90/50, HR 110, RR 20, T 98. Of the following physician orders, which will the nurse perform first?

• A. Initiate oxygen at 2 liters/nasal cannula.
• B. Start an IV of NS at 150 ml/hr
• C. Insert NG tube to low suction
• D. Attach the client to the ECG monitor

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to initiate oxygen at 2 liters/nasal cannula. The client is presenting signs of shock with hypotension, tachycardia, and cool, moist skin, which indicate poor tissue perfusion. Oxygen should be administered first to improve tissue oxygenation. While all interventions are important, oxygenation takes priority in the ABCs of emergency care. Starting an IV of NS, inserting an NG tube, and attaching the client to the ECG monitor are necessary interventions but should follow the priority of oxygen administration in this scenario.

2. While performing wound care to a donor skin graft site, the nurse notes some scabbing at the edges and a black collection of blood. What is the nurse's next action?

• A. Leave the scabbed area alone and apply extra ointment
• B. Notify the physician
• C. Gently remove the debris and re-dress the wound
• D. Apply skin softening lotion for 3 hours and then re-dress

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When the nurse notes scabbing at the edges and a black collection of blood, it indicates the presence of debris that needs to be addressed. Leaving the scabbed area alone and applying extra ointment may not address the underlying issue and could lead to complications. Notifying the physician is important in some cases, but immediate action is required to prevent infection in this situation. Gently removing the debris and re-dressing the wound is the correct course of action to promote healing and prevent complications.

3. A nurse has been ordered to administer Morphine to a patient. Which of the following effects is unrelated to Morphine's effects on the patient?

• A. Depressed function of the CNS
• B. Increased blood flow
• C. Decreased venous capacity
• D. Pain relief

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Morphine is a narcotic analgesic that acts centrally to relieve pain by binding to opioid receptors in the CNS, leading to the depressed function of the CNS. Morphine also causes peripheral vasodilation, which can lead to increased blood flow. However, morphine causes venous dilation and increased venous capacity rather than decreased venous capacity. Therefore, the effect of 'Decreased venous capacity' is unrelated to Morphine's effects. Pain relief is a well-known effect of Morphine, as it acts on the CNS to alter the perception of pain.

4. The client is admitted with a period of unobserved loss of consciousness and now has an EEG scheduled this morning. What should the nurse implement?

• A. Keep NPO and hold medication.
• B. Hold sedatives, but allow the client to have breakfast and give other medicines.
• C. Administer medications, but hold anticonvulsants.
• D. Give additional fluids and some caffeine prior to the test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Prior to an EEG, it is essential for the client to eat to prevent a drop in blood sugar levels. The nurse should hold sedatives but allow the client to have breakfast and administer other necessary medications. Holding sedatives is crucial to ensure accurate EEG results, while providing breakfast helps maintain stable blood sugar levels. Administering other medications, excluding sedatives, is important for the client's overall care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because keeping the client NPO and holding medications, administering medications but holding anticonvulsants, and giving additional fluids and caffeine are not appropriate actions before an EEG.

5. Which of the following is likely to increase the risk of sexually transmitted disease?

• A. alcohol use
• B. certain types of sexual practices
• C. oral contraception use
• D. all of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: All of the above factors are likely to increase the risk of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). Alcohol use can impair judgment, leading to risky sexual behavior. Certain types of sexual practices, especially unprotected sex or multiple partners, increase the likelihood of contracting STDs. While oral contraception use does not directly increase the risk of STDs, it does not protect against them either. Therefore, all the choices (alcohol use, certain types of sexual practices, and oral contraception use) can contribute to an increased risk of contracting STDs.

Similar Questions