NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Question of The Day
1. While making rounds at 3 am, the nurse discovers a small fire in a client's room. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Remove the client from the room immediately.
- B. Leave the client's room to obtain a fire extinguisher.
- C. Instruct a nurse tech to pull the fire alarm.
- D. Evacuate all clients from the unit.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During a fire emergency, the priority is the safety of the individual in the room where the fire is located. Removing the client from the room immediately is the first step in the RACE acronym for fire safety: Rescue/Remove, Alarm, Contain, and Extinguish. This action ensures the client's safety before addressing the fire itself. Choice B is incorrect as leaving the client's room to obtain a fire extinguisher can delay the immediate removal of the client from the danger. Choice C is incorrect as pulling the fire alarm should be done after ensuring the client's safety. Choice D is incorrect as evacuating all clients from the unit should come after ensuring the safety of the individual in immediate danger.
2. The client is wheezing and struggling to breathe. Which of the inhaled medications is indicated at this time?
- A. Fluticasone (Flovent)
- B. Salmeterol (Serevent)
- C. Theophylline (Theodur)
- D. Albuterol (Atrovent)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Albuterol (Atrovent) because it is a rapid-acting bronchodilator, essential for a client experiencing wheezing and difficulty breathing. Albuterol acts quickly, dilating the airways and providing immediate relief in cases of respiratory distress. Fluticasone (Flovent) and Salmeterol (Serevent) are maintenance medications for long-term asthma control, not suitable for acute situations described. Theophylline (Theodur) is a bronchodilator but with a slower onset compared to Albuterol, making it less appropriate for a client in immediate distress.
3. A nurse reviews the health history of a client who will be seeing the health care provider to obtain a prescription for a combination oral contraceptive (estrogen and progestin). Which finding in the health history would cause the nurse to determine that the use of a combination oral contraceptive is contraindicated?
- A. The client has type 2 diabetes mellitus.
- B. The client is being treated for hypertension.
- C. The client has been treated for breast cancer.
- D. The client has hyperlipidemia.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is that the client has been treated for breast cancer. Combination oral contraceptives containing estrogen and progestin are contraindicated for women with a history of certain conditions, such as thrombophlebitis, thromboembolic disorders, cerebrovascular disease, coronary artery disease, myocardial infarction, known or suspected breast cancer, known or suspected estrogen-dependent neoplasm, benign or malignant liver tumors, and undiagnosed abnormal genital bleeding. Although having type 2 diabetes mellitus, being treated for hypertension, or having hyperlipidemia are risk factors that require caution when using combination oral contraceptives, they are not absolute contraindications like a history of breast cancer.
4. What do the following ABG values indicate: pH 7.38, PO2 78 mmHg, PCO2 36mmHg, and HCO3 24 mEq/L?
- A. metabolic alkalosis
- B. homeostasis
- C. respiratory acidosis
- D. respiratory alkalosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'homeostasis.' These ABG values fall within normal ranges, indicating a state of balance in the body's acid-base levels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as the ABG values provided do not point towards metabolic alkalosis, respiratory acidosis, or respiratory alkalosis. Instead, the values reflect a state of equilibrium where pH, PO2, PCO2, and HCO3 levels are within the normal range.
5. A nurse has been ordered to administer Morphine to a patient. Which of the following effects is unrelated to Morphine's effects on the patient?
- A. Depressed function of the CNS
- B. Increased blood flow
- C. Decreased venous capacity
- D. Pain relief
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Morphine is a narcotic analgesic that acts centrally to relieve pain by binding to opioid receptors in the CNS, leading to the depressed function of the CNS. Morphine also causes peripheral vasodilation, which can lead to increased blood flow. However, morphine causes venous dilation and increased venous capacity rather than decreased venous capacity. Therefore, the effect of 'Decreased venous capacity' is unrelated to Morphine's effects. Pain relief is a well-known effect of Morphine, as it acts on the CNS to alter the perception of pain.
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