Nursing Elites

1. The LPN is preparing to ambulate a client post total knee replacement. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform prior to ambulating the client?

• A. Assist the client to a sitting position at the edge of the bed
• B. Have the client march in place for 30 seconds
• C. Have the client raise his arms above his head
• D. Ask the client the last time he fell

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action to perform before ambulating a client post total knee replacement is to assist the client to a sitting position at the edge of the bed. This step is crucial to prevent orthostatic hypotension and ensure the client is ready to stand and walk safely. Having the client march in place or raise his arms above his head are not necessary preparations for ambulation. While knowing about the client's fall history is important for safety reasons, it is not the priority action immediately before ambulating the client.

2. The client is undergoing progressive ambulation on the third day after a myocardial infarction. Which clinical manifestation would indicate that the client should not be advanced to the next level?

• A. Facial flushing
• B. A complaint of chest heaviness
• C. Heart rate increase of 10 beats/min
• D. Systolic blood pressure increase of 10 mm Hg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is a complaint of chest heaviness. Onset of chest pain indicates myocardial ischemia, which can be life-threatening. Chest pain in a client post-myocardial infarction should be promptly evaluated, and the activity level should not be advanced. Choices A, C, and D are not the best options because facial flushing, a heart rate increase of 10 beats/min, and a systolic blood pressure increase of 10 mm Hg are not typical indicators of myocardial ischemia or necessarily contraindications for advancing activity levels in this context.

3. Which of the following diseases or conditions is least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding?

• A. metastatic liver cancer
• B. gram-negative septicemia
• C. pernicious anemia
• D. iron-deficiency anemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pernicious anemia is least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding. Pernicious anemia results from vitamin B12 deficiency due to a lack of intrinsic factor, leading to faulty absorption from the gastrointestinal tract. While pernicious anemia can lead to other health issues, bleeding tendencies are not a primary concern. Metastatic liver cancer (choice A) can cause liver dysfunction leading to decreased synthesis of clotting factors, increasing the risk of bleeding. Gram-negative septicemia (choice B) can lead to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) causing excessive bleeding. Iron-deficiency anemia (choice D) can result in microcytic hypochromic red blood cells, which can impair oxygen transport and lead to tissue hypoxia, but it is not directly associated with a significant potential for bleeding.

4. Following a thyroidectomy, a client is complaining of shortness of breath (SOB) and neck pressure. Which nursing action is the best response?

• A. Stay with the client, remove the dressing, and elevate the head of bed.
• B. Call a code, open the trach set, and position the client supine.
• C. Have the client say "EEE"? to check for laryngeal integrity.
• D. Immediately go to the nurse's station and call the physician

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! The client is displaying signs of respiratory distress after a thyroidectomy. By staying with the client, removing the dressing around the neck, and elevating the head of the bed, the nurse can assess the airway and breathing status more effectively. This immediate action can help alleviate any potential airway obstruction. Choice B is incorrect because calling a code and opening the trach set without initial assessment and basic interventions may delay necessary actions. Choice C is incorrect as having the client say "EEE"? is not as immediate or effective in addressing the respiratory distress. Choice D is incorrect as leaving the client alone and calling the physician without providing immediate assistance can be detrimental in a situation of potential airway compromise.

5. A month after receiving a blood transfusion, an immunocompromised client develops fever, liver abnormalities, a rash, and diarrhea. The nurse should suspect this client has:

• A. no relation to the blood transfusion.
• B. graft-versus-host disease (GVHD).
• C. myelosuppression.
• D. an allergic reaction to a recent medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of fever, liver abnormalities, rash, and diarrhea in an immunocompromised client a month after a blood transfusion are indicative of graft-versus-host disease (GVHD). GVHD occurs when white blood cells in donor blood attack the tissues of an immunocompromised recipient. This process can manifest within a month of the transfusion. While choices 1 and 4 are plausible, it is crucial for the nurse to consider the possibility of GVHD in immunocompromised transfusion recipients due to the significant risk. Myelosuppression, choice C, typically presents with decreased blood cell counts and is not consistent with the symptoms described. An allergic reaction to medication, choice D, would present with different manifestations such as itching, hives, or anaphylaxis, which are not described in the scenario.

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