Nursing Elites

1. After applying oxygen using bi-nasal prongs to a client who is having chest pain, the nurse should implement which intervention?

• A. Have the client take slow deep breaths in through their mouth and out through their nose.
• B. Post signs indicating that oxygen is in use on the client's door and in their room
• C. Apply Vaseline petroleum to both nares and 2 by 2 gauze around the oxygen tubing at the client's ears
• D. Encourage the client to hyperextend the neck, take a few deep breaths and cough.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After applying oxygen using bi-nasal prongs to a client with chest pain, it is essential for the nurse to post signs indicating that oxygen is in use on the client's door and in their room. This safety precaution alerts healthcare providers and visitors that the client is receiving oxygen therapy, reducing the risk of accidents or misunderstandings. Choice A is incorrect because instructing the client to take slow deep breaths is not the appropriate intervention after applying oxygen. Choice C suggests applying Vaseline and gauze, which is unnecessary and not a standard practice. Choice D advising the client to hyperextend the neck, take deep breaths, and cough is not indicated after applying oxygen therapy and could potentially be harmful.

2. What is the most common cause of acute renal failure?

• A. Shock
• B. Nephrotoxic drugs
• C. Enlarged prostate
• D. Diabetes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most common cause of acute renal failure is shock. In cases of shock, such as hypovolemic shock where there is low blood volume, the kidneys receive inadequate blood flow leading to acute renal failure. This can result in the kidneys starting to die within 20 minutes of low pressure. While nephrotoxic drugs can also cause acute renal failure, shock is more commonly associated with this condition. An enlarged prostate can lead to urinary retention but is not the most common cause of acute renal failure. Diabetes, on the other hand, can cause chronic kidney disease over time but is not typically the primary cause of acute renal failure.

3. When encountering the significant other of a patient with end-stage AIDS crying during her smoke break, what is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Allow her to grieve by herself.
• B. Tell her to go ahead and cry, after all, your husband’s pretty bad off.
• C. Tell her you realize how upset she is, but you don’t want to talk about it now.
• D. Approach her, offering tissues, and encourage her to verbalize her feelings

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Approaching the significant other, offering tissues, and encouraging her to verbalize her feelings is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take. Being left alone during the grief process isolates individuals, and they need an outlet for their feelings. By showing empathy and providing support, the nurse can help the significant other cope with her emotions. Choices A, B, and C are inappropriate because they do not offer support or encourage the expression of feelings, which are crucial in such situations.

4. The nurse is assessing the newborn's respirations. Which of these findings would indicate a need for follow-up and further intervention?

• A. irregular respirations
• B. abdominal respirations
• C. shallow respirations
• D. 70 breaths per minute

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The ideal respiratory rate in a newborn is 30-60 breaths per minute. A respiratory rate of 70 breaths per minute indicates tachypnea and may require intervention. Therefore, a rate of 70 breaths per minute would necessitate follow-up and further intervention. Irregular, abdominal, and shallow respirations are common in newborns and may not necessarily indicate the need for immediate follow-up or intervention.

5. After a client with an Automated Internal Cardiac Defibrillator (AICD) is successfully defibrillated for Ventricular Fibrillation (VF), what should the nurse do next?

• A. Go to the client to assess for signs and symptoms of decreased cardiac output.
• B. Call the physician to inform them of the VF episode for medication adjustments.
• C. Call the 'on-call' person in the cath lab to re-charge the ICD in case of a recurrence.
• D. Document the incident on the code report form and follow up regularly.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a client is successfully defibrillated, the immediate priority is to assess the client for signs and symptoms of decreased cardiac output, such as altered level of consciousness, chest pain, shortness of breath, or hypotension. This assessment is crucial to determine the effectiveness of the defibrillation and the client's current hemodynamic status. Calling the physician for medication adjustments without assessing the client first could delay essential interventions. Contacting the 'on-call' person in the cath lab to re-charge the ICD is not the initial action needed after successful defibrillation. Documenting the incident is important but should not take precedence over assessing the client's immediate condition.

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