NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. After applying oxygen using bi-nasal prongs to a client who is having chest pain, the nurse should implement which intervention?
- A. Have the client take slow deep breaths in through their mouth and out through their nose.
- B. Post signs indicating that oxygen is in use on the client's door and in their room
- C. Apply Vaseline petroleum to both nares and 2 by 2 gauze around the oxygen tubing at the client's ears
- D. Encourage the client to hyperextend the neck, take a few deep breaths and cough.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After applying oxygen using bi-nasal prongs to a client with chest pain, it is essential for the nurse to post signs indicating that oxygen is in use on the client's door and in their room. This safety precaution alerts healthcare providers and visitors that the client is receiving oxygen therapy, reducing the risk of accidents or misunderstandings. Choice A is incorrect because instructing the client to take slow deep breaths is not the appropriate intervention after applying oxygen. Choice C suggests applying Vaseline and gauze, which is unnecessary and not a standard practice. Choice D advising the client to hyperextend the neck, take deep breaths, and cough is not indicated after applying oxygen therapy and could potentially be harmful.
2. Which of the following individuals is at the highest risk for suicide?
- A. 76-year-old widow with chronic renal failure
- B. 19-year-old with new SSRI therapy
- C. 28-year-old post-partum crying weekly
- D. 50-year-old client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and depression
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the 76-year-old widow with chronic renal failure. Elderly individuals with chronic diseases, especially men, are at very high risk for suicide. The other choices, although they may be vulnerable populations, do not carry as high a risk for suicide. The 19-year-old with new SSRI therapy may actually have a lower risk as they are receiving treatment. The 28-year-old post-partum individual is experiencing a common emotional response after childbirth, which is not necessarily indicative of a high suicide risk. The 50-year-old with OCD and depression is at risk but not as high as elderly individuals with chronic illness.
3. Which physiologic mechanism best describes the function of the sodium-potassium pump?
- A. active transport
- B. diffusion
- C. filtration
- D. osmosis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Active transport is the correct answer as it accurately describes the process involved in the sodium-potassium pump. The pump utilizes energy to move ions against their concentration gradient, maintaining cellular concentrations. Diffusion (choice B) is a passive process where substances move from an area of higher concentration to lower concentration. Filtration (choice C) involves the movement of solutes based on pressure gradients. Osmosis (choice D) is the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane.
4. The client is undergoing an induction for fetal demise at 34 weeks. Immediately after delivery, the mother asks to see the infant. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. Bring the swaddled fetus to the mother
- B. Explain that the cause of death must be determined before she can see the baby
- C. Ask her if she is sure she wants to see the baby
- D. Tell her it would be better to wait until she is in her room before she sees the baby
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should bring the swaddled fetus to the mother as the best response. Allowing the mother to see the infant immediately after delivery is crucial for her grieving process. It provides her with the opportunity to bond, say goodbye, and start the grieving process. Choice B is incorrect because delaying the mother's request to see the baby can hinder her grieving process and prolong her suffering. Choice C is inappropriate as it questions the mother's decision at a sensitive time, potentially causing distress. Choice D is also not the best response as it suggests waiting, which may not be in the mother's best interest at that moment, as she needs immediate support and closure.
5. The client is scheduled for surgical repair of a detached retina. What is the most likely preoperative nursing diagnosis for this client?
- A. Anxiety related to loss of vision and potential failure to regain vision.
- B. Deficient knowledge (preoperative and postoperative activities) related to lack of information.
- C. Acute pain related to tissue injury and decreased circulation to the eye.
- D. Risk for infection related to the eye injury.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct preoperative nursing diagnosis for a client scheduled for surgical repair of a detached retina is 'Anxiety related to loss of vision and potential failure to regain vision.' A client facing the threat of permanent blindness due to a detached retina is likely to experience anxiety. Addressing this anxiety is crucial before providing education, as severe anxiety can hinder the client's ability to absorb new information. The nurse should offer emotional support, encourage the client to express concerns, and clarify any misconceptions. Acute pain is not a typical symptom of a detached retina, and the risk of infection preoperatively is minimal, making choices C and D less relevant in this scenario.
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