Nursing Elites

1. For which adverse effect of the block does the postpartum nurse monitor the woman after receiving a subarachnoid (spinal) block for a cesarean delivery?

• A. Headache
• B. Pruritus
• C. Vomiting
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Headache.' Postdural headache is a common adverse effect associated with a subarachnoid block due to cerebrospinal fluid leakage at the site of dural puncture. This headache worsens when the woman is upright and may improve when she lies flat. To manage this headache, bed rest and adequate hydration are recommended. Pruritus, vomiting, and hypertension are not typically associated with subarachnoid blocks. Pruritus, nausea, and vomiting are more commonly linked to the use of intrathecal opioids.

2. The PN is caring for a client with diabetes insipidus. The nurse can expect the lab work to show:

• A. elevated urine osmolarity and elevated serum osmolarity.
• B. decreased urine osmolarity and decreased serum osmolarity.
• C. elevated urine osmolarity and decreased serum osmolarity.
• D. decreased urine osmolarity and elevated serum osmolarity.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In diabetes insipidus, the pituitary releases too much antidiuretic hormone (ADH), causing the client to produce a large amount of dilute urine (decreased osmolarity) and leading to dehydration (elevated serum osmolarity). Therefore, the correct answer is decreased urine osmolarity and elevated serum osmolarity. Choice C, elevated urine osmolarity and decreased serum osmolarity, is incorrect for diabetes insipidus, as it is more characteristic of syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH). Choices A and B, elevated urine osmolarity and elevated serum osmolarity, and decreased urine osmolarity and decreased serum osmolarity, respectively, are generally not seen in diabetes insipidus, as urine and serum osmolarity typically move in opposite directions in this condition.

3. The client asked about the role of leptin in the body. Which response should the nurse provide?

• A. It increases food intake in clients, thereby promoting obesity.
• B. It assists in the regulation of steroids.
• C. It increases the total fat mass of people who are obese.
• D. It might decrease the total fat mass in the bodies of people who are obese.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Leptin is a protein hormone expressed in fat cells that regulates fat cell percentage in the body. It is associated with increased energy expenditure and decreased food intake through hypothalamic control. In obese individuals, there may be insensitivity or resistance to leptin's effects. Leptin influences other hormones like insulin and genetic factors related to fat regulation. Therefore, the correct response is that leptin might decrease total fat mass in obese individuals as it is involved in energy balance and fat regulation. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because leptin does not increase food intake or promote obesity; it does not assist in the regulation of steroids, and it does not increase total fat mass in people who are obese.

4. A patient 3 hours post-op from a hysterectomy is complaining of intense pain at the incision site. When assessing the patient, the nurse notes a BP of 169/93, pulse 145 bpm, and regular. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Reassure the patient that pain is normal following surgery.
• B. Administer prn Nifedipine and assess the client's response.
• C. Administer prn Meperidine HCL and assess the client's response.
• D. Recheck BP and pulse rate every 20 minutes for the next hour.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to administer prn Meperidine HCL and assess the client's response. A BP of 169/93 and a pulse of 145 bpm indicate pain-related hypertension and sinus tachycardia, which are physiological responses to pain. Treating the cause of the increased pulse rate requires pain medication. Reassuring the patient about normal post-surgery pain is important, but addressing the physiological responses to pain is a priority. Administering Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, is not indicated for pain management but for hypertension. Rechecking the BP and pulse rate without addressing the pain directly does not address the underlying issue causing the elevated vital signs.

5. A patient has recently been prescribed Norvasc. Which of the following side effects should the patient specifically watch out for?

• A. Hypotension and Angina
• B. Hypertension
• C. Lower extremity edema
• D. Peripheral sensory loss and SOB

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypotension and Angina.' Norvasc is a medication known to cause hypotension (low blood pressure) and angina (chest pain) as side effects. These side effects are important for the patient to watch out for as they can indicate potential issues related to the medication. Choice B ('Hypertension') is incorrect as Norvasc is actually used to treat hypertension, not cause it. Choice C ('Lower extremity edema') is not a common side effect of Norvasc. Choice D ('Peripheral sensory loss and SOB') is not typically associated with Norvasc's side effects.

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