Nursing Elites

1. For which adverse effect of the block does the postpartum nurse monitor the woman after receiving a subarachnoid (spinal) block for a cesarean delivery?

• A. Headache
• B. Pruritus
• C. Vomiting
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Headache.' Postdural headache is a common adverse effect associated with a subarachnoid block due to cerebrospinal fluid leakage at the site of dural puncture. This headache worsens when the woman is upright and may improve when she lies flat. To manage this headache, bed rest and adequate hydration are recommended. Pruritus, vomiting, and hypertension are not typically associated with subarachnoid blocks. Pruritus, nausea, and vomiting are more commonly linked to the use of intrathecal opioids.

2. Which reported symptom would indicate a client with Addison's disease has received too much fludrocortisone (Florinef) replacement?

• A. Oily skin and hair
• B. Weight gain of 6 pounds in one week
• C. Loss of muscle mass in arms and legs
• D. Increased blood glucose level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fludrocortisone (Florinef) replacement in Addison's disease involves mimicking aldosterone to retain sodium and water. This retention can lead to weight gain due to increased fluid retention. Rapid weight gain, such as 6 pounds in one week, is a concerning sign of excessive fluid retention, indicating a potential overdose of fludrocortisone. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because oily skin and hair, loss of muscle mass, and increased blood glucose levels are not specific symptoms of excessive fludrocortisone replacement in Addison's disease.

3. Which of the following is likely to increase the risk of sexually transmitted disease?

• A. alcohol use
• B. certain types of sexual practices
• C. oral contraception use
• D. all of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: All of the above factors are likely to increase the risk of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). Alcohol use can impair judgment, leading to risky sexual behavior. Certain types of sexual practices, especially unprotected sex or multiple partners, increase the likelihood of contracting STDs. While oral contraception use does not directly increase the risk of STDs, it does not protect against them either. Therefore, all the choices (alcohol use, certain types of sexual practices, and oral contraception use) can contribute to an increased risk of contracting STDs.

4. A 55-year-old female asks a nurse the following, “Which mineral/vitamin is the most important to prevent the progression of osteoporosis?” The nurse should state:

• A. Potassium
• B. Magnesium
• C. Calcium
• D. Vitamin B12

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Calcium. Calcium is essential for maintaining bone health and is crucial in preventing osteoporosis. Adequate calcium intake, along with vitamin D, is vital for bone strength. While other minerals and vitamins are also important for overall health, in the context of preventing osteoporosis, calcium plays a primary role. Potassium (Choice A), Magnesium (Choice B), and Vitamin B12 (Choice D) are important for various bodily functions but are not as directly linked to preventing osteoporosis as calcium.

5. A client is experiencing chest pain. Which statement made by the client indicates angina rather than a myocardial infarction?

• A. "I became dizzy when I stood up."?
• B. "I was nauseated and began vomiting."?
• C. "The pain started in my chest and stopped after I sat down."?
• D. "The pain began with a migraine and progressed to numbness in my left arm."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is: '"The pain started in my chest and stopped after I sat down."? This statement suggests angina rather than a myocardial infarction because angina is typically triggered by exertion or stress and relieved by rest. Nausea and vomiting (Choice B) are more commonly associated with a myocardial infarction. Choices A and D are not typical symptoms of either angina or myocardial infarction.

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