Nursing Elites

1. An LPN is taking care of an elderly client who experiences the effects of Sundowner's Syndrome almost every evening. Which of these interventions implemented by the nurse would be the most helpful?

• A. Place a nightlight in the client's room.
• B. Administer the PRN sedative prescribed by the attending physician.
• C. Remind the client that the things and people they are seeing are not real and that they are safe.
• D. Turn on the TV or radio to a station the client enjoys.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A nightlight will help reorient the client to his or her surroundings in the evening and nighttime hours. It is best not to challenge the reality of a client experiencing Sundowner's Syndrome, and sedatives may make the effects of the syndrome worse. Every effort should be made to keep the client's room calm, quiet, and peaceful, so noise should be kept to a minimum. Reminding the client that what they are experiencing is not real may cause distress and confusion, while turning on the TV or radio may add unnecessary stimulation instead of promoting a soothing environment.

2. While assisting with data collection of an adult client, a nurse asks the client to identify various odors. In this technique, which cranial nerve is the nurse assessing?

• A. Optic
• B. Abducens
• C. Olfactory
• D. Hypoglossal

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Olfactory.' The olfactory nerve is responsible for the sense of smell. Assessing this nerve involves testing the client's ability to identify various odors. Loss of smell, head trauma, abnormal mental status, and suspected intracranial lesions are conditions where testing the olfactory nerve is essential. The optic nerve is evaluated for visual acuity and visual fields. The abducens nerve is usually assessed alongside the oculomotor and trochlear nerves, focusing on pupil size, regularity, light reactions, accommodation, and extraocular movements. The hypoglossal nerve is examined by inspecting the tongue, not by assessing the sense of smell.

3. Which of the following actions should the LPN perform for a client with an active digoxin IV order? Select all that apply.

• A. plug the patient to the ECG Monitor
• B. Administer the medication over at least 5 minutes.
• C. Monitor respirations during administration.
• D. Monitor the client's pulse for 1 minute prior to administration.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct actions for the LPN to perform for a client with an active digoxin IV order are to monitor ECG rhythm throughout administration and monitor the client's pulse for 1 minute prior to administration. These actions are crucial as digoxin affects the heart's electrical activity, and it should not be administered if the client's pulse is less than 60 bpm. Monitoring respirations and blood pressure are not directly associated with digoxin administration. Administering IV medications is typically outside the LPN's scope of practice.

4. How often should the nurse change the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions?

• A. every 24 hours
• B. every 36 hours
• C. every 48 hours
• D. every 72 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'every 24 hours.' Changing the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions every 24 hours is crucial due to the high risk of bacterial growth. Bacterial contamination can lead to serious infections in patients receiving total parenteral nutrition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because waiting longer intervals between tubing changes increases the risk of bacterial contamination and infection, compromising patient safety. It is essential to maintain a strict 24-hour schedule to minimize the risk of complications associated with bacterial contamination.

5. If a client has chronic renal failure, which of the following sexual complications is the client at risk of developing?

• A. retrograde ejaculation
• B. decreased plasma testosterone
• C. hypertrophy of testicles
• D. state of euphoria

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In chronic renal failure, untreated, the client is at risk of developing decreased plasma testosterone. This condition leads to atrophy of the testicles and decreased spermatogenesis. Retrograde ejaculation is not a complication of chronic renal failure but can occur after transurethral resection of the prostate. The testicles atrophy in chronic renal failure; they do not hypertrophy. Additionally, chronic renal failure often leads to a state of depression, not euphoria.

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