Nursing Elites

1. An LPN is taking care of an elderly client who experiences the effects of Sundowner's Syndrome almost every evening. Which of these interventions implemented by the nurse would be the most helpful?

• A. Place a nightlight in the client's room.
• B. Administer the PRN sedative prescribed by the attending physician.
• C. Remind the client that the things and people they are seeing are not real and that they are safe.
• D. Turn on the TV or radio to a station the client enjoys.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A nightlight will help reorient the client to his or her surroundings in the evening and nighttime hours. It is best not to challenge the reality of a client experiencing Sundowner's Syndrome, and sedatives may make the effects of the syndrome worse. Every effort should be made to keep the client's room calm, quiet, and peaceful, so noise should be kept to a minimum. Reminding the client that what they are experiencing is not real may cause distress and confusion, while turning on the TV or radio may add unnecessary stimulation instead of promoting a soothing environment.

2. A nurse is assisting with data collection regarding the motor development of a 24-month-old child. Which activities would the nurse expect the mother to report that the child can perform?

• A. Go to the bathroom without help
• B. Dress himself appropriately
• C. Put on and tie his shoes
• D. Align two or more blocks

Correct answer: A

Rationale: By 24 months of age, a child can perform various activities. While the child may be able to put on simple items of clothing, distinguishing front from back might still be a challenge. They may also be able to zip large zippers, put on shoes, wash and dry their hands, align two or more blocks, and turn book pages one at a time. However, the fine motor skill required to tie shoes is usually not developed at this age. Full independence in dressing, using the bathroom, and eating typically occurs around 4 to 5 years of age. Therefore, the correct expectation for a 24-month-old child would be aligning two or more blocks. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they represent skills that are usually achieved at a later age.

3. A nurse is preparing to assist the healthcare provider in performing an internal gynecological examination of a client. In which position does the nurse place the client for this examination?

• A. Prone
• B. Left side-lying
• C. Sims
• D. Lithotomy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An internal gynecological examination is performed with the client in the lithotomy position. In this position, the client is supine, with the feet in stirrups, the knees apart, and the buttocks at the end of the examining table. The client is draped so that only the vulva is exposed. The lithotomy position provides optimal access for the healthcare provider to perform the examination effectively. The prone position refers to lying on the stomach, which is not suitable for a gynecological exam. The Sims position is a left side-lying position primarily used for administering enemas, not for gynecological examinations.

4. When examining the abdomen, a nurse auscultates before palpating and percussing the abdomen. The nurse performs the assessment in this manner for which reason?

• A. It is less painful for the client.
• B. Palpation and percussion can increase peristalsis.
• C. It identifies any potential areas of abdominal tenderness.
• D. It gives the client more time to become comfortable with the examiner.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When performing an abdominal assessment, the nurse auscultates the abdomen after inspection. Auscultation is done before palpation and percussion because these assessment techniques can increase peristalsis, which would yield a false interpretation of bowel sounds. This sequence helps prevent false interpretations of bowel sounds due to increased peristalsis caused by palpation and percussion. Options A, C, and D provide incorrect reasons for auscultating the abdomen before palpating and percussing it.

5. A client with dumping syndrome should..........................while a client with GERD should..........................

• A. Sit up 1 hour after meals; lie flat 30 minutes after meals
• B. Lie down 1 hour after eating; sit up at least 30 minutes after eating
• C. Sit up after meals; sit up after meals
• D. Lie down after meals; lie down after meals

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For a client with dumping syndrome, lying down 1 hour after eating helps reduce symptoms by slowing down the movement of food through the digestive tract, aiding in symptom management. This position assists in symptom management for dumping syndrome. Conversely, for a client with GERD, sitting up at least 30 minutes after eating can help prevent the backflow of stomach acid into the esophagus, reducing reflux symptoms. This upright position is beneficial for managing GERD. Choice A is incorrect because sitting up is recommended for GERD, not dumping syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests sitting up for both conditions, which is not appropriate. Choice D is incorrect as lying down after meals is not recommended for GERD; it can worsen symptoms by promoting acid reflux.

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