Nursing Elites

1. An LPN is taking care of an elderly client who experiences the effects of Sundowner's Syndrome almost every evening. Which of these interventions implemented by the nurse would be the most helpful?

• A. Place a nightlight in the client's room.
• B. Administer the PRN sedative prescribed by the attending physician.
• C. Remind the client that the things and people they are seeing are not real and that they are safe.
• D. Turn on the TV or radio to a station the client enjoys.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A nightlight will help reorient the client to his or her surroundings in the evening and nighttime hours. It is best not to challenge the reality of a client experiencing Sundowner's Syndrome, and sedatives may make the effects of the syndrome worse. Every effort should be made to keep the client's room calm, quiet, and peaceful, so noise should be kept to a minimum. Reminding the client that what they are experiencing is not real may cause distress and confusion, while turning on the TV or radio may add unnecessary stimulation instead of promoting a soothing environment.

2. A client, age 28, is 8 1/2 months pregnant. She is most likely to display which normal skin-color variation?

• A. vitiligo
• B. erythema
• C. cyanosis
• D. chloasma

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chloasma, also known as the mask of pregnancy, is described as tan-to-brown patches on the face. This hyperpigmentation results from hormonal changes during pregnancy. Vitiligo is characterized by depigmented patches, erythema is redness of the skin due to increased blood flow, and cyanosis is a bluish discoloration due to poor circulation or lack of oxygen, none of which are typical skin-color variations during pregnancy. Therefore, in a pregnant client, the most likely normal skin-color variation to be displayed is chloasma.

3. The nurse notes that a client in later adulthood has tremors of the hands. Based on this finding, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Ask the healthcare provider about referring the client to a neurological specialist.
• B. Obtain a prescription for a muscle relaxant.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• D. Document the findings.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a nurse observes senile tremors, such as intentional tremor of the hands in a client in later adulthood, it is important to document the findings. Senile tremors are benign and a normal age-related occurrence. Referring the client to a neurological specialist (Choice A) is unnecessary as senile tremors do not require specialized neurological intervention. Prescribing a muscle relaxant (Choice B) is not indicated since senile tremors are benign and not typically treated with muscle relaxants. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice C) is unnecessary as senile tremors do not require urgent intervention. Therefore, the most appropriate action is to document the findings (Choice D) for the client's medical record and to establish a baseline for future assessments.

4. The client has been on vancomycin for three days. Which of the following symptoms is least concerning?

• A. nausea
• B. headache
• C. vertigo
• D. tinnitus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'headache.' While vancomycin can cause ototoxicity leading to symptoms like tinnitus, vertigo, and nausea, headaches are not typically associated with vancomycin use. Therefore, headache is the least concerning symptom in this scenario. Nausea, vertigo, and tinnitus are more likely to be related to vancomycin ototoxicity and should be closely monitored and reported. Headache is a common symptom that may not be directly linked to vancomycin use.

5. A client has just returned from surgery where a femoral-popliteal bypass was performed. The nurse has assessed the client and is unable to feel a pulse at either the dorsalis pedis or the posterior tibial sites of the left foot. The foot feels warm, and the color is pink. What action should the nurse perform next to prevent ischemia?

• A. Notify the physician immediately
• B. Obtain a Doppler device to check for pulses, and notify the physician if they are still absent
• C. Wait 30 minutes and recheck the pulses
• D. Document the finding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should immediately obtain a Doppler device and recheck the pulses. The dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses can be difficult to assess and might need to be verified with a Doppler device. Since the client just had surgery with a risk of arterial insufficiency, close monitoring is crucial. If pulses are not palpable, it indicates an emergent situation requiring immediate physician notification. Waiting 30 minutes before reassessment could lead to foot ischemia. While documenting findings is essential, it should follow pulse confirmation or necessary interventions to ensure the client's foot viability.

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