Nursing Elites

1. How often should the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions be changed?

• A. every 24 hours
• B. every 36 hours
• C. every 48 hours
• D. every 72 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to change the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions every 24 hours. This frequency is necessary due to the high risk of bacterial growth associated with TPN solutions. Changing the tubing every 24 hours helps prevent contamination and bloodstream infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because waiting longer intervals increases the risk of introducing harmful bacteria into the patient's system, leading to potentially severe complications.

2. A paraplegic client is in the hospital to be treated for an electrolyte imbalance. Which level of care is the client currently receiving?

• A. primary prevention
• B. secondary prevention
• C. tertiary prevention
• D. health promotion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. The client is currently receiving secondary prevention care. Secondary prevention focuses on early detection of disease, prompt intervention, and health maintenance for clients experiencing health problems. In this case, the electrolyte imbalance is a health problem that requires treatment to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because primary prevention is focused on health promotion and specific protections against illness before it occurs, tertiary prevention is aimed at helping rehabilitate clients after the illness is diagnosed and treated, and health promotion is a broader concept that includes activities aimed at improving overall health and well-being rather than targeting a specific health problem like an electrolyte imbalance.

3. A rubella titer is performed on a pregnant client, and the results indicate a titer of less than 1:8. The nurse provides the client with which information?

• A. She must have been exposed to the rubella virus at some point in her life.
• B. The test will need to be repeated during the pregnancy.
• C. She has not developed immunity to the rubella virus.
• D. The test results are normal.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A rubella titer of less than 1:8 indicates that the client is not immune to rubella. In such cases, retesting will be necessary during the pregnancy. If the client is found to be non-immune, rubella immunization is required post-delivery. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A suggests exposure, which cannot be confirmed by the titer result. Choice C wrongly implies that the client has not developed immunity, which is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as the titer result is not within the normal immune range.

4. A nurse is assisting with data collection on an older client who will be seen by a physician in a health care clinic. When the nurse asks the client about sexual and reproductive function, the client reports concern about sexual dysfunction. What should be the nurse's next action?

• A. Document the client's concern in the medical record.
• B. Report the client's concern to the health care provider.
• C. Tell the client that sexual dysfunction is not a normal age-related change.
• D. Ask the client about medications he is taking.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sexual dysfunction is not a normal process of aging. The prevalence of chronic illness and medication use is higher among older adults than in the younger population. Illnesses and medications can interfere with the normal sexual function of older men and women. It is crucial to assess the medications the client is taking as they could be contributing to the reported sexual dysfunction. While documenting the concern and informing the healthcare provider are important steps, the immediate priority is to gather information on the medications that could be impacting the client's sexual function. Therefore, the nurse's next action should be to ask the client about the medications he is taking.

5. A nurse suspects that a client has a distended bladder. On percussing the client's bladder, which finding does the nurse expect to note if the bladder is full?

• A. Dull sounds
• B. Hyperresonance sounds
• C. Hypoactive bowel sounds
• D. An absence of bowel sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When percussing a full bladder, the nurse expects to note dull sounds over the symphysis pubis. This is because a full bladder produces a flat or dull sound. Hyperresonance sounds are present with gaseous distention of the abdomen, not a full bladder. Bowel sounds are auscultated, not percussed, so hypoactive bowel sounds or an absence of bowel sounds are unrelated findings when assessing bladder distention.

Similar Questions