Nursing Elites

1. When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Asks the client to identify a small object brought into the visual field
• B. Has the client cover one eye while the nurse covers one eye and slowly advances a target midline between them
• C. Covers one eye, while the client covers the opposite eye, and brings a small object into the visual field
• D. Positions at eye level with the client, covers one eye, and has the client cover the opposite eye, then brings a small object into the visual field

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, the nurse should position at eye level with the client, cover one eye, and have the client cover the opposite eye. This approach allows the examiner to bring a small object into the visual field to evaluate the client's peripheral vision. The test aims to compare the client's peripheral vision with the examiner's vision to identify any visual field deficits. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A pertains to testing color vision, which is not part of the confrontation test. Choice B describes a different procedure that involves advancing a target midline between the client and examiner, not the correct approach for the confrontation test. Choice C is inaccurate as it fails to include the essential step of positioning at eye level with the client, making it an incorrect representation of the confrontation test.

2. In conducting a health screening for 12-month-old children, the nurse expects them to have been immunized against which of the following diseases?

• A. measles, polio, pertussis, hepatitis B
• B. diphtheria, pertussis, polio, tetanus
• C. rubella, polio, pertussis, hepatitis A
• D. measles, mumps, rubella, polio

Correct answer: B

Rationale: By 12 months of age, children should have received vaccines for diphtheria, pertussis, polio, and tetanus (DTaP and IPV). The correct answer is B as it includes these vaccines that are typically administered in the first year of life. Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccination usually begins at 12 months of age but is not expected to be completed by this time. Choices A and C are incorrect as they include diseases that are not part of the routine immunization schedule for a 12-month-old child.

3. A sexually active adolescent asks the school nurse about the use of latex condoms and the reduction of the risk of sexually transmitted infections (STIs). The nurse provides which information to the adolescent?

• A. Using a latex condom is a good method for reducing the risk of sexually transmitted infections (STIs).
• B. The only way to reduce the risk of transmission of STIs is abstinence.
• C. A spermicide needs to be used along with a condom to prevent transmission of STIs.
• D. Using a latex condom can reduce the risk of transmission of STIs.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that using a condom during intercourse can reduce the risk of STI transmission. Abstinence is a way to prevent STIs, but not the only way. Using a spermicide along with a condom can help prevent pregnancy, not STIs. While condoms may fail to prevent pregnancy, they are effective in reducing the risk of STI transmission. Therefore, using a latex condom for pregnancy prevention is not directly related to preventing the transmission of STIs.

4. The client is assessing a client who has recently found out she is pregnant. Which of the following statements would be a priority for the nurse to follow up on?

• A. "I am nervous about how painful labor will be."?
• B. "I need to review my finances and make sure I am prepared to care for a child."?
• C. "I hate this nausea that I've been having for a week."?
• D. "I am preparing myself to do this on my own because I do not have any family nearby. But I have always been very independent."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should follow up on the client's lack of a support system. Even if there is no family in the area, there are supportive resources in the community that may help the client through the pregnancy and into motherhood. It is normal for the client to worry about labor, address financial concerns, and express displeasure from early pregnancy symptoms such as nausea. However, the priority is to address the client's statement about preparing to handle the pregnancy on her own due to the absence of nearby family support. This could have significant implications for the client's emotional well-being and ability to cope effectively throughout the pregnancy journey.

5. A nurse is supervising a student in preparing the physical environment for an interview with a client. Which action by the student is correct?

• A. Setting the room temperature at a comfortable level
• B. Placing a chair for the client across from the nurse's desk
• C. Providing seating for the client so that the client faces a strong light
• D. Setting up seating so that the client and nurse are not at eye level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When preparing the physical environment for an interview with a client, it is crucial to ensure the client's comfort. Setting the room temperature at a comfortable level is essential for the client's well-being. Additionally, providing privacy, sufficient lighting, and removing distractions are crucial factors. It is recommended to maintain a distance of around 4 to 5 feet between the client and the nurse. Seating should be arranged so that the client and nurse are at eye level to facilitate effective communication and prevent barriers. Placing a chair across from the nurse's desk may create a physical barrier, positioning the client to face a strong light can be uncomfortable and distracting, and setting up seating so that the client and nurse are not at eye level may impede effective communication.

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