Nursing Elites

1. When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Asks the client to identify a small object brought into the visual field
• B. Has the client cover one eye while the nurse covers one eye and slowly advances a target midline between them
• C. Covers one eye, while the client covers the opposite eye, and brings a small object into the visual field
• D. Positions at eye level with the client, covers one eye, and has the client cover the opposite eye, then brings a small object into the visual field

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, the nurse should position at eye level with the client, cover one eye, and have the client cover the opposite eye. This approach allows the examiner to bring a small object into the visual field to evaluate the client's peripheral vision. The test aims to compare the client's peripheral vision with the examiner's vision to identify any visual field deficits. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A pertains to testing color vision, which is not part of the confrontation test. Choice B describes a different procedure that involves advancing a target midline between the client and examiner, not the correct approach for the confrontation test. Choice C is inaccurate as it fails to include the essential step of positioning at eye level with the client, making it an incorrect representation of the confrontation test.

2. When should rehabilitation services begin?

• A. when the client enters the health care system.
• B. after the client requests rehabilitation services
• C. after the client's physical condition stabilizes.
• D. when the client is discharged from the hospital.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rehabilitation services should begin when the client enters the health care system to ensure early intervention and optimal outcomes. Initiating rehabilitation early can help prevent complications, improve recovery, and enhance overall well-being. Option B is incorrect because waiting for the client to request services may lead to delays in starting treatment, potentially affecting the recovery process. Option C is incorrect as rehabilitation can often commence even when the client's physical condition is not fully stabilized, as early intervention is crucial for progress. Option D is incorrect as beginning rehabilitation only after hospital discharge may not be ideal, as early intervention within the healthcare system is preferred for a more effective recovery journey.

3. A laboring client is experiencing late decelerations. Which position should she be placed in?

• A. left lateral
• B. lithotomy
• C. semi-Fowler's
• D. right lateral

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the left lateral position. Placing the laboring client in the left lateral position is beneficial because it promotes blood flow to the placenta. Late decelerations indicate potential issues with fetal oxygenation, and changing the position to left lateral can help improve placental perfusion. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because lithotomy, semi-Fowler's, and right lateral positions do not specifically address the need for improved blood flow to the placenta in cases of late decelerations.

4. During the examination of a client's throat, a nurse touches the posterior wall with a tongue blade and elicits the gag reflex. The nurse documents normal function of which cranial nerves?

• A. Cranial nerves V and VI
• B. Cranial nerves XII and VIII
• C. Cranial nerves XII and VIII
• D. Cranial nerves IX and X

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve). When the nurse touches the posterior pharyngeal wall with a tongue blade and elicits the gag reflex, it indicates normal function of these nerves. Cranial nerves V (trigeminal nerve) and VI (abducens nerve) are not directly responsible for the gag reflex. Cranial nerves XII (hypoglossal nerve) and VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve) are not directly involved in eliciting the gag reflex. Testing cranial nerve I involves smell function, and cranial nerve II is related to eye examinations, making them irrelevant in this scenario.

5. A nurse is providing information to a group of pregnant clients and their partners about the psychosocial development of an infant. Using Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, the nurse tells the group that infants have which developmental need?

• A. Must have needs ignored for short periods to develop a healthy personality
• B. Need to rely on the fact that their needs will be met
• C. Need to experience frustration, so it is best to allow an infant to cry for a while before meeting his or her needs
• D. Need to tolerate a great deal of frustration and discomfort to develop a healthy personality

Correct answer: B

Rationale: According to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, infants struggle to establish a sense of basic trust rather than a sense of basic mistrust in their world, their caregivers, and themselves. If provided with consistent satisfying experiences that are delivered in a timely manner, infants come to rely on the fact that their needs are met and that, in turn, they will be able to tolerate some degree of frustration and discomfort until those needs are met. This sense of confidence is an early form of trust and provides the foundation for a healthy personality. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with Erikson's theory that emphasizes the importance of infants trusting that their needs will be met.

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