Nursing Elites

1. When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Asks the client to identify a small object brought into the visual field
• B. Has the client cover one eye while the nurse covers one eye and slowly advances a target midline between them
• C. Covers one eye, while the client covers the opposite eye, and brings a small object into the visual field
• D. Positions at eye level with the client, covers one eye, and has the client cover the opposite eye, then brings a small object into the visual field

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, the nurse should position at eye level with the client, cover one eye, and have the client cover the opposite eye. This approach allows the examiner to bring a small object into the visual field to evaluate the client's peripheral vision. The test aims to compare the client's peripheral vision with the examiner's vision to identify any visual field deficits. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A pertains to testing color vision, which is not part of the confrontation test. Choice B describes a different procedure that involves advancing a target midline between the client and examiner, not the correct approach for the confrontation test. Choice C is inaccurate as it fails to include the essential step of positioning at eye level with the client, making it an incorrect representation of the confrontation test.

2. When planning for the physical assessment of the woman, the nurse ensures that which occurs?

• A. The woman is examined by a female health care provider.
• B. The woman's husband remains in the examining room at all times.
• C. The woman is examined without any other people in the examining room.
• D. Written permission is obtained from the woman to obtain subjective health data.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In many cultures, including Muslim, Hindu, and Latino, modesty is important, and exposure of a woman's genitals to men is considered demeaning. To respect the patient's cultural beliefs and modesty, it is best for a female health care provider to perform the examination. This practice helps to ensure the patient's comfort and adherence to cultural norms. Having the woman examined without any other people in the room (Choice C) may not address the cultural sensitivity required for this situation. Having the woman's husband remain in the examining room at all times (Choice B) may not align with the patient's cultural preferences and may cause discomfort. Written permission from the woman to obtain subjective health data (Choice D) is not directly related to ensuring a culturally sensitive physical assessment in this context.

3. A nurse reviewing a client's record notes that the result of the client's latest Snellen chart vision test was 20/80. The nurse interprets the client's results in which way?

• A. The client is legally blind.
• B. The client has normal vision.
• C. The client can read at a distance of 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet.
• D. The client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When interpreting visual acuity testing results using the Snellen chart, the recorded numeric fraction represents the distance the client is standing from the chart and the distance a normal eye could read that particular line. A reading of 20/80 means that the client can read at 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet. This indicates visual impairment but does not meet the criteria for legal blindness, which is defined as best-corrected vision in the better eye of 20/200 or worse. Normal visual acuity is 20/20. Therefore, the correct interpretation is that the client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet. Choice A is incorrect because 20/80 does not meet the criteria for legal blindness. Choice B is incorrect as the client's vision is impaired. Choice C is incorrect because it reverses the interpretation of the fraction.

4. Around what age do children typically start to develop 'stranger anxiety'?

• A. 9 months
• B. 6 months
• C. 3 months
• D. 12 months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is '6 months.' At around this age, children typically start to develop 'stranger anxiety' as they become more aware of unfamiliar faces and may start showing signs of distress or anxiety around strangers. At 3 months, infants are still very young and unlikely to display stranger anxiety. While by 9 or 12 months, children have usually already developed some level of stranger anxiety, it typically starts around 6 months, making it the most appropriate answer in this context.

5. When discussing birth control methods with a client, what major factor should a nurse focus on to provide the motivation needed for consistent implementation of a birth control method?

• A. Personal preference
• B. Work and home schedules
• C. Family planning goals
• D. Desire to have children in the future

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When discussing birth control methods with a client, a nurse should focus on the client's personal preference as a major factor that will provide the motivation needed for consistent implementation of a birth control method. Personal preference plays a key role in ensuring that the chosen method aligns with the client's lifestyle and values, increasing the likelihood of adherence. While work and home schedules, family planning goals, and the desire to have children in the future can influence the choice of birth control method, they are not the primary motivating factors for consistent implementation. Personal preference is crucial as it empowers the client to select a method that suits their individual needs and preferences, ultimately leading to better compliance and effectiveness.

Similar Questions