Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is observing a client self-administer two crushable medications through their G-tube. Which of the following would indicate a need for further instruction?

• A. The client flushes the G-tube before administering the medications, in between the two medications, and after the medications.
• B. The client states they will remain in the Semi-Fowler's position for 30 minutes following the administration of the medications.
• C. The client mixes each medication separately in warm water.
• D. The client mixes their medications with their tube-feeding formula.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that the client mixes their medications with their tube-feeding formula. Medications should not be mixed with tube-feeding formula or other medications as it may alter their effectiveness. The G-tube should be flushed before, between, and after the medications to prevent clogging and ensure proper administration. The client should remain in the Semi-Fowler's position for at least 30 minutes after medication administration to prevent reflux. Choice B is correct as it aligns with the proper post-administration positioning. Choices A and C are incorrect as flushing the G-tube before, between, and after medications, and mixing each medication separately in warm water are appropriate procedures that do not indicate a need for further instruction.

2. A nurse monitoring a newborn infant notes that the infant's respirations are 40 breaths/min. On the basis of this finding, what is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Contacting the registered nurse
• B. Documenting the findings
• C. Wrapping an extra blanket around the infant
• D. Placing the infant in an oxygen tent

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The normal respiratory rate of a newborn infant is 30 to 60 breaths/min, with an average of 40. Since the infant's respiratory rate falls within the normal range, the most appropriate action for the nurse is to document the findings. Contacting the registered nurse, placing the infant in an oxygen tent, or wrapping an extra blanket around the infant are unnecessary actions as the respiratory rate is normal. Documenting the findings is important to provide a record of the assessment and serve as a baseline for future comparisons if needed.

3. What is the primary focus of a case manager?

• A. Addressing nursing care needs at discharge.
• B. Managing the comprehensive care needs of the client for continuity of care.
• C. Providing client education needs upon discharge.
• D. Securing financial resources for needed care.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Managing the comprehensive care needs of the client for continuity of care.' Case managers oversee all aspects of a client's care to ensure continuity throughout their healthcare journey. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses only on nursing care needs at discharge, which is just a part of the overall care needed. Choice C narrows down the focus to client education needs, excluding other essential care components. Choice D solely considers financial resources, neglecting the broader scope of care needs that a case manager is accountable for.

4. An amniocentesis is scheduled for a pregnant client in the third trimester. The nurse informs the client that the most common indication for amniocentesis during the third trimester is for which reason?

• A. Determination of whether alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is present in the amniotic fluid
• B. Checking the amniotic fluid for intrauterine infection
• C. Determination of fetal lung maturity
• D. Checking the fetal cells for chromosomal abnormalities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most common indication for amniocentesis in the third trimester is the determination of fetal lung maturity. This assessment is essential to evaluate the fetus's readiness for extrauterine life. Checking for alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in the amniotic fluid is more commonly associated with midtrimester amniocentesis to identify chromosomal abnormalities. Assessing for intrauterine infection is not a primary reason for amniocentesis in the third trimester. While checking fetal cells for chromosomal abnormalities is a common indication for midtrimester amniocentesis, it is not the most common indication in the third trimester.

5. At what age are yearly mammograms recommended to start?

• A. Yearly mammograms are recommended starting at age 25.
• B. Yearly mammograms are recommended starting at age 40.
• C. Yearly mammograms are not necessary unless there is a family history of breast cancer.
• D. Yearly mammograms are recommended starting at age 20 and continuing until menopause begins.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The American Cancer Society recommends yearly mammograms starting at age 40 and continuing for as long as a woman is in good health. Clinical breast examination should be done about every 3 years for women in their 20s and 30s and every year for women age 40 and older. Women should know how their breasts normally look and feel and report any breast change promptly to the healthcare provider. Breast self-examination should be done monthly starting when a woman is in her 20s. Choice A is incorrect as mammograms are not recommended to start at age 25. Choice C is incorrect as yearly mammograms are still recommended even without a family history of breast cancer. Choice D is incorrect as the recommended age for starting yearly mammograms is 40, not 20.

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