Nursing Elites

1. A nurse assisting with data collection is preparing to auscultate for bowel sounds. The nurse should use which technique?

• A. Begin in the right lower quadrant.
• B. Use the bell end of the stethoscope.
• C. Hold the stethoscope lightly against the skin.
• D. Listen for at least 5 minutes before deciding that bowel sounds are absent.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To auscultate for bowel sounds, the nurse should use the diaphragm end piece of the stethoscope as bowel sounds are relatively high pitched. The stethoscope should be held lightly against the skin to avoid stimulating more bowel sounds. The nurse should begin in the right lower quadrant at the ileocecal valve, where bowel sounds are normally present. It is recommended to listen for 5 minutes before deciding that bowel sounds are absent to ensure a thorough assessment. Choice B is incorrect because the bell end is used for low-pitched sounds such as heart sounds. Choice C is incorrect as holding the stethoscope firmly and deeply can cause unnecessary bowel sound stimulation. Choice D is incorrect as listening for 1 minute is insufficient to determine the presence or absence of bowel sounds.

2. Immediately after delivery, the nurse assesses the woman's uterine fundus. At what location does the nurse expect to be able to palpate the fundus?

• A. At the level of the umbilicus
• B. Two centimeters above the umbilicus
• C. Midway between the symphysis pubis and umbilicus
• D. In the pelvic cavity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is midway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus. Immediately after delivery, the uterus is about the size of a large grapefruit or softball. The fundus can be palpated at this location but then rises to a level just above the umbilicus before sinking to the level of the umbilicus, where it remains for about 24 hours. After 24 hours, the fundus starts descending gradually. By the 10th to 14th day, the fundus is in the pelvic cavity and cannot be palpated abdominally. Choices A and B are incorrect as the fundus is not initially at the level of the umbilicus or 2 centimeters above it. Choice D is also incorrect as the fundus does not remain in the pelvic cavity immediately after delivery.

3. During data collection of a client with suspected carpal tunnel syndrome, a nurse plans to perform the Phalen test. The nurse should ask the client to perform which activity?

• A. Dorsiflex the foot
• B. Plantarflex the foot
• C. Hold the hands back to back while flexing the wrists 90 degrees for 60 seconds
• D. Hyperextend the fingers with the palmar surfaces of the hands touching, holding the position for 60 seconds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the Phalen test, the nurse asks the client to hold the hands back to back while flexing the wrists 90 degrees. This position puts pressure on the median nerve, eliciting symptoms in carpal tunnel syndrome. Dorsiflexing or plantarflexing the foot and hyperextending the fingers are not associated with testing for carpal tunnel syndrome. Acute flexion of the wrist for 60 seconds produces no symptoms in the normal hand.

4. A nurse reviewing a client's record notes that the result of the client's latest Snellen chart vision test was 20/80. The nurse interprets the client's results in which way?

• A. The client is legally blind.
• B. The client has normal vision.
• C. The client can read at a distance of 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet.
• D. The client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When interpreting visual acuity testing results using the Snellen chart, the recorded numeric fraction represents the distance the client is standing from the chart and the distance a normal eye could read that particular line. A reading of 20/80 means that the client can read at 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet. This indicates visual impairment but does not meet the criteria for legal blindness, which is defined as best-corrected vision in the better eye of 20/200 or worse. Normal visual acuity is 20/20. Therefore, the correct interpretation is that the client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet. Choice A is incorrect because 20/80 does not meet the criteria for legal blindness. Choice B is incorrect as the client's vision is impaired. Choice C is incorrect because it reverses the interpretation of the fraction.

5. When obtaining a health history on a menopausal woman, which information should a nurse recognize as a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy?

• A. family history of stroke
• B. ovaries removed before age 45
• C. frequent hot flashes and/or night sweats
• D. unexplained vaginal bleeding

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When obtaining a health history on a menopausal woman, unexplained vaginal bleeding should be recognized as a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy. This is because it can be a sign of underlying issues that need to be addressed before starting hormone therapy. A family history of stroke is not a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy unless the woman herself has a history of stroke or blood-clotting events. Ovaries removed before age 45 is not a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy. Frequent hot flashes and/or night sweats can be relieved by hormone replacement therapy; therefore, they are not contraindications.

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