Nursing Elites

1. A nurse assisting with data collection is preparing to auscultate for bowel sounds. The nurse should use which technique?

• A. Begin in the right lower quadrant.
• B. Use the bell end of the stethoscope.
• C. Hold the stethoscope lightly against the skin.
• D. Listen for at least 5 minutes before deciding that bowel sounds are absent.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To auscultate for bowel sounds, the nurse should use the diaphragm end piece of the stethoscope as bowel sounds are relatively high pitched. The stethoscope should be held lightly against the skin to avoid stimulating more bowel sounds. The nurse should begin in the right lower quadrant at the ileocecal valve, where bowel sounds are normally present. It is recommended to listen for 5 minutes before deciding that bowel sounds are absent to ensure a thorough assessment. Choice B is incorrect because the bell end is used for low-pitched sounds such as heart sounds. Choice C is incorrect as holding the stethoscope firmly and deeply can cause unnecessary bowel sound stimulation. Choice D is incorrect as listening for 1 minute is insufficient to determine the presence or absence of bowel sounds.

2. When a woman is receiving postpartum epidural morphine, the nurse should plan to observe for which of the following side effects to occur within the first 3 hours?

• A. nausea and vomiting
• B. itching
• C. urinary retention
• D. somnolence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A side effect of postpartum epidural morphine is the onset of itching within 3 hours of injection and lasting up to 10 hours. Nausea and vomiting might occur 4-7 hours after injection. While urinary retention is a side effect of postpartum epidural morphine, it is not typically assessed within the first 3 hours. Somnolence is a rare side effect and not commonly observed within the first 3 hours. Therefore, itching is the most likely side effect to be observed within the initial 3 hours after administering postpartum epidural morphine.

3. A client describes her cervical mucus as clear, thin, and elastic. Upon examination, the nurse demonstrates that the cervical mucus can be stretched 8-10 cm. The nurse correctly documents the finding as:

• A. increased ferning capacity.
• B. lack of ferning.
• C. spinnbarkheit.
• D. inhospitable.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should document the finding as 'spinnbarkheit.' Spinnbarkheit is the term used to describe the clear, thin, and elastic cervical mucus that can be stretched 8-10 cm, indicating ovulation. It helps couples determine the most fertile period for conception. Ferning capacity or crystallization increases as ovulation approaches, but it requires microscopic examination to be confirmed. Lack of ferning cannot be determined without such examination. 'Inhospitable' cervical mucus refers to patterns that prohibit sperm motility, caused by various factors like hormone levels or infection. These conditions cannot be assessed based solely on the description provided in the question.

4. A nurse provides instructions to an older adult about measures to prevent heatstroke. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction?

• A. ''I should wear cool, light clothing in warm weather.''
• B. ''I need to wear a hat with a wide brim when I go outdoors.''
• C. ''I need to wear additional antiperspirant and deodorant in warm weather.''
• D. ''I should drink extra fluids during the summer.''

Correct answer: C

Rationale: As an individual ages, the number of sweat glands decreases, resulting in reduced body odor and decreased evaporative heat loss due to less sweating. The need for antiperspirants and deodorants is reduced in older adults. Therefore, the statement 'I need to wear additional antiperspirant and deodorant in warm weather' indicates a need for further instruction. Older adults should focus on wearing cool, light clothing in warm weather to prevent overheating, wearing a hat with a wide brim when outdoors to protect from the sun's rays, and staying hydrated by drinking extra fluids during the summer. These measures are more effective in preventing heatstroke in older adults compared to using additional antiperspirants and deodorants, which are not necessary.

5. A client, age 28, is 8 1/2 months pregnant. She is most likely to display which normal skin-color variation?

• A. vitiligo
• B. erythema
• C. cyanosis
• D. chloasma

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chloasma, also known as the mask of pregnancy, is described as tan-to-brown patches on the face. This hyperpigmentation results from hormonal changes during pregnancy. Vitiligo is characterized by depigmented patches, erythema is redness of the skin due to increased blood flow, and cyanosis is a bluish discoloration due to poor circulation or lack of oxygen, none of which are typical skin-color variations during pregnancy. Therefore, in a pregnant client, the most likely normal skin-color variation to be displayed is chloasma.

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