NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. While performing wound care to a donor skin graft site, the nurse notes some scabbing at the edges and a black collection of blood. What is the nurse’s next action?
- A. Leave the scabbed area alone and apply extra ointment
- B. Notify the physician
- C. Gently remove the debris and re-dress the wound
- D. Apply skin softening lotion for 3 hours and then re-dress
Correct answer: Gently remove the debris and re-dress the wound
Rationale: When the nurse notes scabbing at the edges and a black collection of blood, it indicates the presence of debris that needs to be addressed. Leaving the scabbed area alone and applying extra ointment may not address the underlying issue and could lead to complications. Notifying the physician is important in some cases, but immediate action is required to prevent infection in this situation. Gently removing the debris and re-dressing the wound is the correct course of action to promote healing and prevent complications.
2. Acyclovir is the drug of choice for:
- A. HIV
- B. HSV 1 and 2 and VZV
- C. CMV
- D. influenza A viruses
Correct answer: HSV 1 and 2 and VZV
Rationale: Acyclovir (Zovirax) is specifically used to treat infections caused by herpes simplex virus types 1 and 2 (HSV-1 and HSV-2) and varicella-zoster virus (VZV). These include conditions like cold sores, genital herpes, and shingles. Acyclovir works by inhibiting viral DNA replication, leading to the formation of shorter, ineffective DNA chains. It is important to note that acyclovir is not effective against other viruses like HIV, cytomegalovirus (CMV), or influenza A viruses. Therefore, the correct answer is HSV 1 and 2 and VZV.
3. A month after receiving a blood transfusion, an immunocompromised client develops fever, liver abnormalities, a rash, and diarrhea. The nurse should suspect this client has:
- A. no relation to the blood transfusion.
- B. graft-versus-host disease (GVHD).
- C. myelosuppression.
- D. an allergic reaction to a recent medication.
Correct answer: graft-versus-host disease (GVHD).
Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of fever, liver abnormalities, rash, and diarrhea in an immunocompromised client a month after a blood transfusion are indicative of graft-versus-host disease (GVHD). GVHD occurs when white blood cells in donor blood attack the tissues of an immunocompromised recipient. This process can manifest within a month of the transfusion. While choices 1 and 4 are plausible, it is crucial for the nurse to consider the possibility of GVHD in immunocompromised transfusion recipients due to the significant risk. Myelosuppression, choice C, typically presents with decreased blood cell counts and is not consistent with the symptoms described. An allergic reaction to medication, choice D, would present with different manifestations such as itching, hives, or anaphylaxis, which are not described in the scenario.
4. A client, age 28, was recently diagnosed with Hodgkin’s disease. After staging, therapy is planned to include combination radiation therapy and systemic chemotherapy with MOPP—nitrogen mustard, vincristine (Onconvin), prednisone, and procarbazine. In planning care for this client, the nurse should anticipate which of the following side effects to contribute to a sense of altered body image?
- A. Cushingoid appearance
- B. Alopecia
- C. Temporary or permanent sterility
- D. Pathologic fractures
Correct answer: B: Alopecia
Rationale: The correct answer is B: alopecia. Chemotherapy drugs like vincristine and nitrogen mustard commonly cause hair loss (alopecia), which can significantly impact body image. While a Cushingoid appearance can be a side effect of long-term steroid use, it is not typically associated with the chemotherapy regimen mentioned. Temporary or permanent sterility can result from chemotherapy, affecting fertility but not directly contributing to altered body image. Pathologic fractures are not commonly linked to Hodgkin's disease or its treatment, unlike alopecia which is a well-known side effect.
5. A nurse is assessing an 18-year-old female who has recently suffered a TBI. The nurse notes a slower pulse and impaired respiration. The nurse should report these findings immediately to the physician due to the possibility the patient is experiencing which of the following conditions?
- A. Increased intracranial pressure
- B. Increased function of cranial nerve X
- C. Sympathetic response to activity
- D. Meningitis
Correct answer: Increased intracranial pressure
Rationale: The nurse should report the slower pulse and impaired respiration to the physician immediately as they are indicative of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) following a traumatic brain injury (TBI). These signs suggest that there may be a rise in pressure within the skull, which can be a life-threatening condition requiring urgent intervention. Options B and C are unlikely in this scenario as they do not correlate with the symptoms presented. Meningitis (Option D) typically presents with different signs and symptoms, such as fever, headache, and neck stiffness, which are not described in the patient's case.
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