Nursing Elites

1. While performing wound care to a donor skin graft site, the nurse notes some scabbing at the edges and a black collection of blood. What is the nurse's next action?

• A. Leave the scabbed area alone and apply extra ointment
• B. Notify the physician
• C. Gently remove the debris and re-dress the wound
• D. Apply skin softening lotion for 3 hours and then re-dress

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When the nurse notes scabbing at the edges and a black collection of blood, it indicates the presence of debris that needs to be addressed. Leaving the scabbed area alone and applying extra ointment may not address the underlying issue and could lead to complications. Notifying the physician is important in some cases, but immediate action is required to prevent infection in this situation. Gently removing the debris and re-dressing the wound is the correct course of action to promote healing and prevent complications.

2. A 70-year-old male who is recovering from a stroke exhibits signs of unilateral neglect. Which behavior is suggestive of unilateral neglect?

• A. The client is observed shaving only one side of his face.
• B. The client is unable to distinguish between two tactile stimuli presented simultaneously.
• C. The client is unable to complete a range of vision without turning his head side to side.
• D. The client is unable to carry out cognitive and motor activity at the same time.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Unilateral neglect is a condition where a person ignores one side of their body. In this case, the behavior of shaving only one side of the face indicates neglect of the other side. This behavior is suggestive of unilateral neglect as the individual is failing to attend to one side of their body. Choices B, C, and D are not associated with unilateral neglect. Choice B refers to tactile agnosia, a condition where a person cannot recognize objects by touch, not related to ignoring one side of the body. Choice C describes a visual field cut, which is a different visual deficit. Choice D relates to dual-task interference, not specific to ignoring one side of the body.

3. A nurse is taking the health history of an 85-year-old client. Which of the following physical findings is consistent with normal aging?

• A. Increase in subcutaneous fat.
• B. Diminished cough reflex.
• C. Long-term memory loss.
• D. Myopia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Diminished cough reflex.' Diminished cough reflex is a physical finding consistent with normal aging in older adults, which can increase the risk of aspiration and atelectasis. An increase in subcutaneous fat actually raises the risk of pressure ulcers. While long-term memory is typically preserved in aging unless affected by dementia, short-term memory often declines. Myopia (near-sightedness) is common in younger individuals, but presbyopia (far-sightedness) is more common with aging. Additionally, individuals with myopia may experience an improvement in vision as they age.

4. Which of the following diseases or conditions is least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding?

• A. metastatic liver cancer
• B. gram-negative septicemia
• C. pernicious anemia
• D. iron-deficiency anemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pernicious anemia is least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding compared to the other conditions listed. Pernicious anemia is a condition resulting from vitamin B12 deficiency due to the absence of intrinsic factor, necessary for B12 absorption. While pernicious anemia can lead to neurological issues, it is not directly linked to an increased risk of bleeding. Metastatic liver cancer can cause liver dysfunction leading to coagulopathy, gram-negative septicemia can result in disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and iron-deficiency anemia can lead to microcytic hypochromic red blood cells, increasing the risk of bleeding. Therefore, pernicious anemia is the least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding out of the options provided.

5. A 64-year-old Alzheimer's patient has exhibited excessive cognitive decline resulting in harmful behaviors. The physician orders restraints to be placed on the patient. Which of the following is the appropriate procedure?

• A. Secure the restraints to the bed rails on all extremities.
• B. Notify the physician that restraints have been placed properly.
• C. Communicate with the patient and family the need for restraints.
• D. Position the head of the bed at a 45-degree angle.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cases where restraints are considered necessary for a patient, it is crucial to communicate effectively with both the patient and their family about the reasons for this decision. This helps ensure that all parties involved understand the necessity of restraints and are informed about the potential risks and benefits. Option A, securing restraints to the bed rails on all extremities, is not appropriate as it does not involve proper communication or ethical considerations. Option B, notifying the physician that restraints have been placed properly, overlooks the importance of patient and family involvement in decision-making. Option D, positioning the head of the bed at a 45-degree angle, is unrelated to the use of restraints and does not address the situation at hand.

Similar Questions