Nursing Elites

1. Which behavior by a new nurse would indicate to the charge nurse that this nurse is following standard precautions?

• A. Wearing clean gloves while performing a heel stick on an infant
• B. Wearing the same gloves for assessments of clients in the same room
• C. Wearing sterile gloves when changing the urine bag and nasogastric canister of an infected client
• D. Donning a gown when responding to a request by the family to check the IV pump on a client with rotavirus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is wearing clean gloves while performing a heel stick on an infant. Standard precautions require the use of gloves when there is a risk of exposure to blood or body fluids. Clean gloves are suitable for this task as they provide adequate protection without being sterile. Choice B is incorrect because wearing the same gloves for different clients can lead to cross-contamination, violating standard precautions. Choice C is incorrect as sterile gloves are usually not required for changing a urine bag and nasogastric canister unless a specific aseptic technique is indicated; standard precautions do not demand sterile gloves for such tasks. Choice D is incorrect as donning a gown is not necessary for checking an IV pump unless there is a risk of exposure to bodily fluids that would necessitate full-body protection, which is not indicated in this scenario.

2. A patient has fallen off a bicycle and fractured the head of the proximal fibula. A cast was placed on the patient's lower extremity. Which of the following is the most probable result of the fall?

• A. Peroneal nerve injury
• B. Tibial nerve injury
• C. Sciatic nerve injury
• D. Femoral nerve injury

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is peroneal nerve injury. The head of the proximal fibula is in close proximity to the peroneal nerve, making it susceptible to injury when there is a fracture. The peroneal nerve runs along the fibula and can be affected by trauma to this area. Choice B, tibial nerve injury, is incorrect as the fracture site is closer to the peroneal nerve, not the tibial nerve. Choice C, sciatic nerve injury, is incorrect as the injury is more localized to the fibular head area where the peroneal nerve is affected. Choice D, femoral nerve injury, is incorrect as the femoral nerve is not immediately adjacent to the proximal fibula and is not typically affected by this type of injury.

3. Clomiphene is prescribed for a female client to treat infertility. The nurse is providing information to the client and her spouse about the medication and provides the couple with which information?

• A. If the oral tablets are not successful, the medication will be administered intravenously.
• B. The couple should engage in coitus at least every other day during treatment.
• C. The physician should be notified immediately if breast engorgement occurs.
• D. Multiple births occur in a small percentage of clomiphene-facilitated pregnancies.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that multiple births (usually twins) occur in a small percentage (8% - 10%) of clomiphene-facilitated pregnancies. The couple should be informed about this potential outcome. Clomiphene is available in 50-mg tablets for oral use; there is no intravenous form of the medication. Breast engorgement is a common side effect of clomiphene that typically resolves after discontinuation of the medication. Ovulation usually happens 5 to 10 days after the last dose of clomiphene, and the couple is advised to engage in coitus at least every other day during this time. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not provide accurate information regarding clomiphene treatment for infertility.

4. A female client complains to the nurse at the health department that she has fatigue, shortness of breath, and lightheadedness. Her history reveals no significant medical problems. She states that she is always on a fad diet without any vitamin supplements. Which tests should the nurse expect the client to have first?

• A. peptic ulcer studies
• B. complete blood count, including hematocrit and hemoglobin
• C. genetic testing
• D. hemoglobin electrophoresis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to perform a complete blood count, including hematocrit and hemoglobin, as the initial tests to assess the client's symptoms related to fatigue, shortness of breath, and lightheadedness. These symptoms can be indicative of anemia, which can be caused by nutritional deficiencies due to fad dieting without vitamin supplements. Peptic ulcer studies, genetic testing, and hemoglobin electrophoresis are not the most appropriate initial tests for the client's presenting symptoms and history. Peptic ulcer studies are not relevant to the client's symptoms. Genetic testing is not indicated based on the client's presentation and history. Hemoglobin electrophoresis is used to diagnose specific types of anemia and is not the first-line test in this scenario. Further testing decisions should be based on the results of the initial tests, the client's history, and other relevant factors.

5. What essential assessment must be performed for clients with implanted dialysis access devices?

• A. Color and capillary refill
• B. Patency and pulse
• C. Thrill and bruit
• D. Trousseau's and temperature

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct! When assessing clients with implanted dialysis access devices, it is crucial to palpate for the thrill, which indicates blood flow, and auscultate for the bruit, a humming sound, to ensure the patency of the access device. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not specific assessments related to dialysis access devices. Checking color and capillary refill, pulse, Trousseau's sign, and temperature are important assessments in other contexts but not specifically for monitoring implanted dialysis access devices.

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