Nursing Elites

1. Ten-year-old Jackie is admitted to the hospital with a medical diagnosis of Rheumatic Fever. She relates a history of 'a sore throat about a month ago.' Bed rest with bathroom privileges is prescribed. Which of the following nursing assessments should be given the highest priority when assessing Jackie's condition?

• A. her response to hospitalization
• B. the presence of a macular rash on her trunk
• C. her cardiac status
• D. the presence of polyarthritis and joint pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring Jackie's cardiac status is of the highest priority in a patient with rheumatic fever. Rheumatic fever can lead to permanent cardiac damage, making it crucial to closely monitor the heart. Assessing for signs of carditis, such as murmurs or other cardiac symptoms, is essential. The second priority is evaluating joint symptoms for the presence of polyarthritis and pain, which are common manifestations of rheumatic fever. While assessing Jackie's response to hospitalization is important for her emotional well-being, it is not the highest priority. The presence of a macular rash, although relevant, is not as high a priority as monitoring cardiac status or assessing joint symptoms.

2. Which type of hepatitis is transmitted via the fecal-oral route?

• A. Hepatitis A
• B. Hepatitis B
• C. Hepatitis C
• D. Hepatitis D

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hepatitis A is the correct answer because it is transmitted via the fecal-oral route, often through contaminated food or water. Hepatitis B is transmitted through exposure to infectious blood, semen, and other body fluids, not through the fecal-oral route. Hepatitis C is transmitted through blood-to-blood contact, not via the fecal-oral route. Hepatitis D occurs only in individuals infected with Hepatitis B. Therefore, the correct choice for the type of hepatitis transmitted via the fecal-oral route is Hepatitis A.

3. An RN on your unit has had an argument with the family of a client regarding the way in which the RN has changed the client's dressing. The family is adamant that the dressing change was performed incorrectly. The RN insists that sterile technique was observed. As an RN manager, what is the best response?

• A. Meet with the family member and the RN to discuss the disagreement regarding the dressing change.
• B. Talk to the family member and assure them that the nurse followed the hospital procedure.
• C. Discuss the dressing change procedure with the RN and compare it to a current textbook.
• D. Change the RN's assignment the next day to another client.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When conflict occurs, it is best to meet with both parties together to discuss the problem. This approach allows each party to hear what the other is saying and prevents the RN manager from being caught in the middle. By facilitating a discussion between the family member and the RN, they can work together to find a resolution or the manager can mediate. This promotes open communication, understanding, and collaboration. Option A is the correct choice because it emphasizes addressing the conflict directly and seeking a mutual understanding. Option B is incorrect because just assuring the family member may not address the underlying issues. Option C is incorrect as it does not involve the family member in the resolution process. Option D is inappropriate as it doesn't address the conflict but rather avoids it by changing the RN's assignment.

4. A 62-year-old female is being seen on a home visit by a nurse. The patient reports she has been taking Premarin for years. Which of the following would indicate an overdose?

• A. Lower extremity edema
• B. Sensory changes in the upper extremities
• C. Increased occurrence of fractures
• D. Decreased peripheral blood flow

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lower extremity edema can indicate an overdose of Premarin. Premarin, an estrogen hormone replacement therapy, can cause fluid retention leading to edema in the lower extremities. Sensory changes in the upper extremities, increased occurrence of fractures, and decreased peripheral blood flow are not typically associated with an overdose of Premarin.

5. A patient 3 hours post-op from a hysterectomy is complaining of intense pain at the incision site. When assessing the patient, the nurse notes a BP of 169/93, pulse 145 bpm, and regular. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Reassure the patient that pain is normal following surgery.
• B. Administer prn Nifedipine and assess the client's response.
• C. Administer prn Meperidine HCL and assess the client's response.
• D. Recheck BP and pulse rate every 20 minutes for the next hour.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to administer prn Meperidine HCL and assess the client's response. A BP of 169/93 and a pulse of 145 bpm indicate pain-related hypertension and sinus tachycardia, which are physiological responses to pain. Treating the cause of the increased pulse rate requires pain medication. Reassuring the patient about normal post-surgery pain is important, but addressing the physiological responses to pain is a priority. Administering Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, is not indicated for pain management but for hypertension. Rechecking the BP and pulse rate without addressing the pain directly does not address the underlying issue causing the elevated vital signs.

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