NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Exam Cram
1. Ten-year-old Jackie is admitted to the hospital with a medical diagnosis of Rheumatic Fever. She relates a history of 'a sore throat about a month ago.' Bed rest with bathroom privileges is prescribed. Which of the following nursing assessments should be given the highest priority when assessing Jackie's condition?
- A. her response to hospitalization
- B. the presence of a macular rash on her trunk
- C. her cardiac status
- D. the presence of polyarthritis and joint pain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Monitoring Jackie's cardiac status is of the highest priority in a patient with rheumatic fever. Rheumatic fever can lead to permanent cardiac damage, making it crucial to closely monitor the heart. Assessing for signs of carditis, such as murmurs or other cardiac symptoms, is essential. The second priority is evaluating joint symptoms for the presence of polyarthritis and pain, which are common manifestations of rheumatic fever. While assessing Jackie's response to hospitalization is important for her emotional well-being, it is not the highest priority. The presence of a macular rash, although relevant, is not as high a priority as monitoring cardiac status or assessing joint symptoms.
2. A 13-year-old girl is admitted to the ER with lower right abdominal discomfort. What should the admitting nurse do first?
- A. Administer Loritab to the patient for pain relief.
- B. Place the patient in a right sidelying position for pressure relief.
- C. Start a Central Line.
- D. Provide pain reduction techniques without administering medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a case of lower right abdominal discomfort, the first step should be to provide pain reduction techniques without administering medication. Administering pain medication or starting a central line should not be done without medical orders. Placing the patient in a right sidelying position may help with pressure relief, but addressing pain reduction techniques without medication is the initial priority in this scenario. It is essential to assess the patient further, consult with a healthcare provider, and follow the appropriate protocols before administering any medication or invasive procedures like starting a central line.
3. When discussing possible complications of pregnancy with a client, the nurse should explain that all of the following are symptoms of urinary tract infection (UTI). Which of the following is least indicative of UTI during pregnancy?
- A. low back pain
- B. urinary frequency
- C. GI distress
- D. malaise
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Urinary frequency is least indicative of UTI during pregnancy. It is a common minor discomfort of pregnancy caused by pressure of the growing uterus on the bladder. As the uterus rises in the second trimester, there are usually no problems. Frequency may return in the third trimester when the uterus drops into the pelvic cavity. UTI symptoms include low back pain, suprapubic discomfort, and malaise, and are confirmed by laboratory findings. Low back pain, GI distress, and malaise are more closely associated with UTI during pregnancy compared to urinary frequency.
4. A 20-year-old obese female client is preparing to have gastric bypass surgery for weight loss. She says to the nurse, "I need this surgery because nothing else I have done has helped me to lose weight."? Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. "If you eat less, you can save some money."?
- B. "Exercise is a healthier way to lose weight."?
- C. "You should try the Atkins diet first."?
- D. "I respect your decision to choose surgery."?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most appropriate response by the nurse is to show respect and empathy towards the client's decision. Option D acknowledges the client's autonomy and decision-making process, fostering a therapeutic relationship. Options A, B, and C are insensitive and unprofessional. Option A implies a financial incentive for weight loss, which can be perceived as disrespectful and trivializing the client's concerns. Option B suggests an alternative method without considering the client's reasons for choosing surgery, potentially invalidating her experiences. Option C recommends a specific diet without addressing the client's concerns or choices, neglecting her autonomy in decision-making.
5. When caring for a client with a possible diagnosis of placenta previa, which of the following admission procedures should the nurse omit?
- A. perineal shave
- B. enema
- C. urine specimen collection
- D. blood specimen collection
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'enema.' Administering an enema to a client with placenta previa can dislodge the placenta, leading to an increased risk of bleeding and complications. It is crucial to avoid any interventions that may disrupt the placenta's positioning. Collecting urine and blood specimens are necessary for diagnostic purposes and monitoring, while a perineal shave is a routine procedure that does not pose a risk to the client with placenta previa.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access