Nursing Elites

1. Which statement best describes electrolytes in intracellular and extracellular fluid?

• A. There is a greater concentration of sodium in extracellular fluid and potassium in intracellular fluid
• B. There is an equal concentration of sodium and potassium in extracellular fluid
• C. There is a greater concentration of potassium in extracellular fluid and sodium in intracellular fluid
• D. There is an equal concentration of sodium and potassium between intracellular and extracellular fluid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Electrolytes are distributed unequally between intracellular and extracellular fluids. Sodium concentration is higher in extracellular fluid, while potassium concentration is higher in intracellular fluid. Therefore, the correct answer is 'There is a greater concentration of sodium in extracellular fluid and potassium in intracellular fluid.' Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the typical distribution of sodium and potassium between intracellular and extracellular fluid.

2. Which client should be seen first by the Emergency Department nurse?

• A. A six-year-old with a femur fracture.
• B. A two-year-old with a fever of 102 degrees F.
• C. A three-year-old with wheezes in the right lower lobe.
• D. A two-year-old whose gastrostomy tube came out.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority in the emergency department is to assess and manage clients based on the severity of their condition. In this scenario, the three-year-old with wheezes in the right lower lobe should be seen first because respiratory distress takes precedence over other conditions. Wheezing indicates potential airway compromise, which requires immediate attention to ensure adequate oxygenation. The other options are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's airway and breathing. A femur fracture, fever, or a dislodged gastrostomy tube can be addressed after ensuring the child with respiratory distress is stable.

3. During a stress test, a patient complains of severe chest pain. Which of the following medications is the most appropriate to relieve this discomfort?

• A. Aspirin
• B. Diazoxide
• C. Procardia
• D. Mannitol

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate medication to relieve severe ischemic chest pain during a stress test is Procardia. Procardia, a calcium channel blocker, is effective in quickly alleviating chest pain by dilating coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart muscle. Aspirin, although important for antiplatelet effects, is not the best choice for immediate relief of severe chest pain. Diazoxide is a vasodilator used in hypertensive emergencies, not for acute chest pain. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure, not for chest pain relief.

4. The client is undergoing an induction for fetal demise at 34 weeks. Immediately after delivery, the mother asks to see the infant. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Bring the swaddled fetus to the mother
• B. Explain that the cause of death must be determined before she can see the baby
• C. Ask her if she is sure she wants to see the baby
• D. Tell her it would be better to wait until she is in her room before she sees the baby

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should bring the swaddled fetus to the mother as the best response. Allowing the mother to see the infant immediately after delivery is crucial for her grieving process. It provides her with the opportunity to bond, say goodbye, and start the grieving process. Choice B is incorrect because delaying the mother's request to see the baby can hinder her grieving process and prolong her suffering. Choice C is inappropriate as it questions the mother's decision at a sensitive time, potentially causing distress. Choice D is also not the best response as it suggests waiting, which may not be in the mother's best interest at that moment, as she needs immediate support and closure.

5. Elderly persons with pernicious anemia should be instructed:

• A. to increase their dietary intake of foods high in B12.
• B. that they do not need to return for follow-up for at least a month after initiation of treatment.
• C. that oral B12 is safer and less expensive than parenteral replacement.
• D. that diarrhea can be a transient side effect of B12 injections.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elderly persons with pernicious anemia, a condition characterized by vitamin B12 deficiency due to lack of intrinsic factor, should be informed about the potential side effects of B12 injections. Diarrhea is a known transient side effect of B12 injections, along with pain and burning at the injection site, and peripheral vascular thrombosis. Increasing dietary intake of B12-rich foods would not be sufficient due to the malabsorption issue in pernicious anemia. Follow-up is essential in managing pernicious anemia, so instructing patients they do not need to return for follow-up is incorrect. While oral B12 may be a suitable option for some cases, it is not the preferred choice for pernicious anemia where malabsorption is the primary issue.

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