Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted to the critical care unit after suffering from a massive cerebral vascular accident. The client's vital signs include BP 160/110, HR 42, Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Based on this assessment, the nurse anticipates the client to be in which acid-base balance?

• A. Respiratory acidosis
• B. Respiratory alkalosis
• C. Metabolic acidosis
• D. Metabolic alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is exhibiting Cheyne-Stokes respirations, which are characterized by periods of deep breathing alternating with apnea. This pattern indicates respiratory insufficiency, resulting in an accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood. The elevated BP and slow heart rate further support the respiratory insufficiency, leading to respiratory acidosis. Therefore, the correct answer is Respiratory acidosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Respiratory alkalosis is characterized by decreased carbon dioxide levels in the blood, which is not indicated by the client's presentation. Metabolic acidosis results from conditions such as renal failure or diabetic ketoacidosis and is not the primary imbalance in this case. Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by elevated pH and bicarbonate levels, which are not present in the client's vital signs.

2. The nurse is caring for a client receiving warfarin therapy (Coumadin�) following a stroke. The client's PT/INR was completed at 7:00 A.M. prior to the morning meal with an INR reading of 4.0. Which of the following is the nurse's first priority?

• A. Call the physician to request an increase in the Coumadin� dose.
• B. Administer a vitamin K injection IM and notify the physician of the results.
• C. Assess the client for bleeding around the gums or in the stool and notify the physician of the lab results and latest dose of Coumadin�.
• D. Notify the next shift to hold the daily dose of Coumadin� scheduled for 5:00 P.M.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client receiving warfarin therapy with a high INR of 4.0, the nurse's first priority is to administer a vitamin K injection intramuscularly (IM) and notify the physician of the results. An INR of 4.0 indicates excessive anticoagulation, putting the client at risk of bleeding. Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin overdose and helps to reverse its effects. It is crucial to administer vitamin K promptly to prevent bleeding complications. Calling the physician to request an increase in the Coumadin� dose is inappropriate and dangerous in this situation, as it would further raise the INR. Assessing the client for bleeding and notifying the physician is important but not the first priority when faced with a critically high INR. Holding the daily dose of Coumadin� may be necessary after administering vitamin K, but it is not the primary action needed to address the acute high INR level.

3. A patient has suffered a left CVA and developed severe hemiparesis resulting in a loss of mobility. The nurse notices on assessment that an area over the patient's left elbow appears as non-blanchable erythema, and the skin is intact. The nurse should score the patient as having which of the following?

• A. Stage I pressure ulcer
• B. Stage II pressure ulcer
• C. Stage III pressure ulcer
• D. Stage IV pressure ulcer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Erythema with the skin intact is characteristic of a Stage I pressure ulcer. At this stage, the skin is not broken, but there is localized redness that does not blanch when pressed. Stage II pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss, Stage III pressure ulcers have full-thickness skin loss, and Stage IV pressure ulcers extend to deeper tissues, including muscle and bone. In this case, the non-blanchable erythema with intact skin aligns with the characteristics of a Stage I pressure ulcer.

4. Which of the following injuries, if demonstrated by a client entering the Emergency Department, is the highest priority?

• A. open leg fracture
• B. open head injury
• C. stab wound to the chest
• D. traumatic amputation of a thumb

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A stab wound to the chest might result in lung collapse and mediastinal shift that, if untreated, could lead to death. Treatment of an obstructed airway or a chest wound is a higher priority than hemorrhage. The principle of ABC (airway, breathing, and circulation) prioritizes care decisions. In this scenario, the stab wound to the chest poses the highest risk to the client's life as it can lead to severe complications such as lung collapse and mediastinal shift. Addressing this injury promptly is crucial to prevent further harm or potential fatality. Open leg fracture, open head injury, and traumatic amputation of a thumb, while serious, do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to a stab wound to the chest.

5. When planning care for a client taking Heparin, which nursing diagnosis should the nurse address first?

• A. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to the presence of a thrombus obstructing blood flow
• B. Risk for injury related to active loss of blood from the vascular space
• C. Deficient knowledge related to the client's lack of understanding of the disease process
• D. Impaired skin integrity related to the development of bruises and/or hematoma

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for injury related to active loss of blood from the vascular space.' When a client is taking Heparin, the primary concern is the risk of bleeding due to its anticoagulant properties. Monitoring for signs of active blood loss is crucial to prevent complications like hemorrhage. While ineffective tissue perfusion, deficient knowledge, and impaired skin integrity are important, they are secondary to the immediate risk of bleeding in clients taking anticoagulants like Heparin.

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