Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is working in a pediatric clinic, and a 25-year-old mother comes in with a 4-week-old baby. The mother is stressed out about the loss of sleep, and the baby exhibits signs of colic. Which of the following techniques should the nurse teach the mother?

• A. Distraction of the infant with a red object
• B. Prone positioning techniques
• C. Tapping reflex techniques
• D. Neural warmth techniques

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Neural warmth techniques involve the caregiver providing a warm, soothing touch to the baby, which can help to lower the baby's agitation level and promote relaxation. This technique is beneficial for calming colicky babies. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because distraction with a red object, prone positioning, and tapping reflex techniques are not effective methods for managing colic in infants. Red object distraction is not a proven technique for soothing colicky babies. Prone positioning is not recommended for infants due to the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Tapping reflex techniques are not recognized as effective interventions for colic.

2. Which of the following procedures describes an opening between the colon and abdominal wall?

• A. ileostomy
• B. jejunostomy
• C. colostomy
• D. cecostomy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A colostomy is an opening between the colon and abdominal wall. An ileostomy is an opening between the ileum and abdominal wall, not the colon. Jejunostomy is an opening between the jejunum and abdominal wall, and cecostomy is an opening into the cecum. The term 'colostomy' specifically refers to the surgical procedure where a part of the colon is brought through the abdominal wall to create a stoma, allowing feces to leave the body. Therefore, the correct answer is colostomy as it accurately describes the opening between the colon and the abdominal wall, distinct from the other options.

3. A client has been taking a drug (Drug A) that is highly metabolized by the cytochrome P-450 system. He has been on this medication for 6 months. At this time, he is started on a second medication (Drug B) that is an inducer of the cytochrome P-450 system. You should monitor this client for:

• A. increased therapeutic effects of Drug A.
• B. increased adverse effects of Drug B.
• C. decreased therapeutic effects of Drug A.
• D. decreased therapeutic effects of Drug B.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is taking a drug (Drug A) metabolized by the cytochrome P-450 system and is then started on another drug (Drug B) that induces this system, the metabolism of Drug A is increased. This results in decreased therapeutic effects of Drug A as it is broken down more rapidly. Monitoring is required to address potential reduced efficacy. The therapeutic effect of Drug A is diminished, not enhanced. Inducing the cytochrome P-450 system does not directly increase the adverse effects of Drug B. Although Drug B is an inducer, its therapeutic effects are not decreased as it is not metabolized faster.

4. The client has been taking divalproex (Depakote) for the management of bipolar disorder. The nurse should give priority to monitoring which laboratory test?

• A. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
• B. Serum glucose
• C. Serum creatinine
• D. Serum electrolytes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Alanine aminotransferase (ALT). Monitoring ALT levels is crucial when a patient is taking divalproex (Depakote) due to the risk of drug-induced hepatitis. Elevated ALT levels indicate liver damage or disorders, which can be a side effect of Depakote. Serum glucose (choice B) is not the priority for monitoring in this case, as the medication does not directly affect glucose levels. Serum creatinine (choice C) is not the most relevant test to monitor for Depakote use; it primarily assesses kidney function. Serum electrolytes (choice D) are important but do not take precedence over monitoring ALT levels when a patient is on Depakote.

5. The charge nurse on a cardiac unit tells you a patient is exhibiting signs of right-sided heart failure. Which of the following would not indicate right-sided heart failure?

• A. Muscle tetany
• B. Syncope
• C. Numbness
• D. Anxiety

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Anxiety.' Anxiety is not a typical sign of right-sided heart failure. Right-sided heart failure usually presents with symptoms such as muscle tetany, syncope, and numbness. Muscle tetany can occur due to electrolyte imbalances seen in heart failure. Syncope can result from decreased cardiac output, leading to decreased perfusion to the brain. Numbness can occur due to poor circulation. While anxiety can be present in patients with various medical conditions, it is more commonly associated with respiratory acidosis or other psychological factors rather than right-sided heart failure.

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